Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to minimize the risk for injury for this client?

• A. Use a bed exit alarm system
• B. Raise all four side rails while the client is in bed
• C. Apply soft wrist restraints
• D. Dim the lights in the client's room

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Using a bed exit alarm system. A bed exit alarm alerts staff when a client with dementia attempts to leave the bed, reducing the risk of falls. Choice B is incorrect because raising all four side rails can lead to restraint-related injuries and is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as applying wrist restraints should be avoided due to the risk of injury and decreased mobility. Choice D is incorrect as dimming the lights in the client's room does not directly address the risk of injury associated with dementia.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

• A. Client reports nausea.
• B. Urinary output of 20 mL/hr.
• C. Oxygen saturation 90%.
• D. Respiratory rate 14/min.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is below the expected reference range and could indicate respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. This finding requires immediate attention as it may lead to hypoxia. Nausea (choice A) is a common side effect of morphine but does not pose an immediate threat. A urinary output of 20 mL/hr (choice B) may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as critical as respiratory compromise. A respiratory rate of 14/min (choice D) is within the normal range and does not suggest immediate danger.

3. What is the priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 30 minutes every 4 hours
• B. Check for air leaks and proper functioning of the chest tube
• C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
• D. Encourage frequent coughing to clear secretions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively is to check for air leaks and ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube. This is crucial to prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Clamping the chest tube intermittently can lead to a buildup of pressure in the pleural space and should not be done without a specific medical indication. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing helps with lung expansion but is not the priority over ensuring the chest tube's proper function. Encouraging frequent coughing may increase the risk of dislodging the chest tube or causing complications.

4. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is undergoing total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor the client's electrolyte levels daily
• B. Weigh the client daily
• C. Monitor the client's blood glucose levels every 6 hours
• D. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to include in the plan of care for a client undergoing total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. Changing the tubing at regular intervals helps reduce the risk of infection associated with central venous catheters. Monitoring electrolyte levels daily (Choice A) is important but not specific to TPN. Weighing the client daily (Choice B) is important for monitoring fluid status but not directly related to TPN. Monitoring blood glucose levels every 6 hours (Choice C) is essential for clients receiving TPN, but changing the tubing is a more critical intervention to prevent infections.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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