Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is called away for an emergency while conversing with a client who is concerned about his medical diagnosis. The nurse returns to the client promptly, as promised. Which of the following ethical principles is the nurse demonstrating?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Beneficence
• D. Justice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fidelity. Fidelity in nursing ethics involves keeping promises and being faithful to commitments, demonstrating reliability and trustworthiness. In this scenario, the nurse is exemplifying fidelity by returning promptly to the client as promised. Choice B, Autonomy, refers to respecting a patient's right to make their own decisions, not relevant in this situation. Choice C, Beneficence, involves the duty to act in the best interest of the patient, which is not the primary focus here. Choice D, Justice, pertains to fairness and equity in the distribution of healthcare resources, not applicable to the nurse's actions in this case.

2. A client with osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What instruction should the LPN/LVN provide to the client?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Take the medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Alendronate can cause irritation to the esophagus, so it is important to take it with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to help prevent this irritation. Taking the medication at bedtime (choice B) may increase the risk of esophageal irritation as lying down can allow the medication to remain in the esophagus longer. Taking the medication with food (choice C) or on an empty stomach (choice D) can also interfere with the absorption of alendronate, reducing its effectiveness in treating osteoporosis.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to assess a patient for orthostatic hypotension. Which piece of equipment will the professional obtain to assess for this condition?

• A. Thermometer
• B. Elastic stockings
• C. Blood pressure cuff
• D. Sequential compression devices

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To assess for orthostatic hypotension, a healthcare professional needs to obtain a blood pressure cuff. Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop in blood pressure greater than 20 mm Hg in systolic pressure or 10 mm Hg in diastolic pressure when moving from lying down to a standing position. A thermometer (Choice A) is used to measure body temperature and is not directly related to assessing orthostatic hypotension. Elastic stockings (Choice B) are used for preventing deep vein thrombosis and improving circulation in the lower extremities, not for assessing orthostatic hypotension. Sequential compression devices (Choice D) are mechanical pumps that are used to prevent deep vein thrombosis and are not specifically used for assessing orthostatic hypotension.

4. A healthcare professional is measuring vital signs for a client and notices an irregularity in the pulse. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Count the apical pulse rate for 1 full minute, and describe the rhythm in the chart.
• B. Recheck the pulse at the same site after 5 minutes.
• C. Measure the client’s blood pressure.
• D. Record the irregularity and continue with other vital signs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an irregular pulse is detected, it is essential to count the apical pulse rate for a full minute to accurately determine the rhythm. This ensures a comprehensive assessment and helps in identifying any potential issues or abnormalities. Rechecking the pulse at the same site after 5 minutes (Choice B) may not provide an immediate understanding of the irregularity. Measuring the client's blood pressure (Choice C) is important but not directly related to addressing the irregular pulse. Recording the irregularity and continuing with other vital signs (Choice D) may overlook a potentially serious cardiac issue that requires immediate attention.

5. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.

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