ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. When providing care for a client in preterm labor at 32 weeks of gestation, which medication should the nurse anticipate the provider will prescribe to hasten fetal lung maturity?
- A. Calcium gluconate
- B. Indomethacin
- C. Nifedipine
- D. Betamethasone
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Betamethasone is the correct medication to anticipate the provider prescribing to hasten fetal lung maturity in clients at risk for preterm labor. It is a corticosteroid that helps promote lung maturation in the preterm fetus by stimulating the production of surfactant, which is essential for lung function. This medication is commonly given to pregnant individuals at risk of preterm delivery between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Calcium gluconate, Indomethacin, and Nifedipine are not used to hasten fetal lung maturity in preterm labor; they serve different purposes in maternal and fetal care.
2. A healthcare provider is assisting with the care of a newborn immediately following birth. Which of the following nursing interventions is the highest priority?
- A. Initiating breastfeeding
- B. Performing the initial bath
- C. Giving a vitamin K injection
- D. Covering the newborn's head with a cap
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Covering the newborn's head with a cap is the highest priority immediately following birth to prevent heat loss. Newborns are at risk of hypothermia due to their immature thermoregulation, making it crucial to maintain their body temperature. By covering the newborn's head with a cap, heat loss through the head is minimized, helping to keep the baby warm and stable in the immediate post-birth period. Initiating breastfeeding, performing the initial bath, and giving a vitamin K injection are important interventions but are not as high a priority as ensuring the newborn's thermal stability.
3. A healthcare professional is assisting with the care for a client who is experiencing a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following findings is expected with this condition?
- A. No alteration in menses
- B. Transvaginal ultrasound indicating a fetus in the uterus
- C. Blood progesterone greater than the expected reference range
- D. Report of severe shoulder pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Severe shoulder pain is a common finding in clients with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy due to referred pain from diaphragmatic irritation caused by blood in the abdominal cavity. This pain is known as Kehr's sign and is often experienced in the shoulder due to irritation of the phrenic nerve. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A ruptured ectopic pregnancy typically presents with symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and signs of shock, rather than no alteration in menses, a fetus in the uterus, or elevated blood progesterone levels.
4. A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)
- A. Decreased fetal movement
- B. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
- C. Postmaturity
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A contraction stress test (CST) is performed to assess how the fetus responds to the stress of contractions. Indications for this test include decreased fetal movement, intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), and postmaturity. These conditions may warrant the need for a CST to evaluate fetal well-being and determine appropriate management. Therefore, all of the above options are correct indications for a contraction stress test. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they are all valid reasons for performing a CST in a pregnant client.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing fetal heart tones for a pregnant client. The provider has determined the fetal position as left occipital anterior. To which of the following areas of the client's abdomen should the provider apply the ultrasound transducer to assess the point of maximum intensity of the fetal heart?
- A. Left upper quadrant
- B. Right upper quadrant
- C. Left lower quadrant
- D. Right lower quadrant
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When the fetal position is left occipital anterior, the point of maximum intensity of the fetal heart is best heard in the left lower quadrant of the client's abdomen. Placing the ultrasound transducer in the left lower quadrant allows for optimal detection of fetal heart tones in this specific fetal position. Choice A (Left upper quadrant) is incorrect as it is not where the fetal heart tones are best heard in this scenario. Choice B (Right upper quadrant) is also incorrect as it is not the recommended area for assessing fetal heart tones in a left occipital anterior position. Choice D (Right lower quadrant) is incorrect as the focus should be on the left side due to the fetal position mentioned.
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