a nurse is assisting with the care for a client who is receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor the nurse should monitor the client for wh
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam

1. When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Question: When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations? Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, causes vasodilation, potentially leading to a decrease in blood pressure and side effects such as dizziness. Monitoring for dizziness is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being during treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with nifedipine use for preventing preterm labor. Blood-tinged sputum may indicate other conditions like pulmonary issues, pallor could suggest anemia or circulatory problems, and somnolence is not a common side effect of nifedipine.

2. A nurse is assisting with an in-service for newly licensed nurses about neonatal abstinence syndrome in newborns. Which of the following statements by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A continuous high-pitched cry is a characteristic sign of neonatal abstinence syndrome, indicating withdrawal from drugs. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased muscle tone, sleeping for 2 to 3 hours after a feeding, and mild tremors when disturbed are not specific indicators of neonatal abstinence syndrome.

3. A client who is pregnant and has phenylketonuria (PKU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to eliminate from her diet?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU) have difficulty breaking down phenylalanine, an amino acid found in protein-rich foods like peanut butter. Therefore, clients with PKU should avoid foods high in phenylalanine, such as peanut butter, to prevent adverse effects on their health. Choices B, C, and D are not typically high in phenylalanine and do not pose the same risk to individuals with PKU as peanut butter.

4. A client is being discharged after childbirth. At 4 weeks postpartum, the client should contact the provider for which of the following client findings?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sore nipples with cracks and fissures should be reported to the provider as this can indicate improper breastfeeding techniques or infection, which requires medical evaluation and intervention to prevent further complications such as mastitis or decreased milk supply. Scant, non-odorous white vaginal discharge is a normal finding postpartum. Uterine cramping during breastfeeding is also common due to oxytocin release. Decreased response with sexual activity may be expected at 4 weeks postpartum due to hormonal changes and fatigue, but it is not typically a concern that needs immediate medical attention.

5. A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a symptom that can indicate a serious side effect of oral contraceptives, such as a potential blood clot in the lungs. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with serious side effects of oral contraceptives and are considered normal or common side effects that do not require urgent medical attention.

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