Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Uterine fundus is firm and midline
• B. Client's perineal pad is saturated in 15 minutes
• C. Client reports breast tenderness when breastfeeding
• D. Client's temperature is 100.4°F

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A perineal pad saturated in 15 minutes is a sign of excessive postpartum bleeding, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent postpartum hemorrhage. The other findings are normal postpartum occurrences. A firm and midline uterine fundus indicates proper involution, breast tenderness during breastfeeding is common due to engorgement, and a temperature of 100.4°F is considered within the normal range for the postpartum period.

2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving radiation treatments for cancer. The client states he is experiencing dryness, redness, and scaling at the treatment area. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Sit in the sun for 15 minutes per day.
• B. Apply moist heat to the area twice daily.
• C. Liberally apply prescribed lotion to the area.
• D. Wash the affected area daily with antimicrobial soap.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to liberally apply prescribed lotion to the treatment area. Prescribed hydrating lotions help soothe and protect irradiated skin, reducing dryness, redness, and scaling. Sitting in the sun can further damage the skin. Applying moist heat may exacerbate the skin condition. Washing the area with antimicrobial soap can be too harsh and further irritate the skin.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Heart rate
• C. Temperature
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. Sildenafil, a medication for erectile dysfunction, can cause changes in blood pressure. The nurse should monitor for hypotension as a potential side effect. Monitoring heart rate (choice B) is not a priority when administering sildenafil unless there are pre-existing heart conditions. Temperature (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are typically not directly affected by sildenafil administration, making them less relevant for monitoring in this case.

4. A client at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Oxytocin
• B. Nifedipine
• C. Dinoprostone
• D. Misoprostol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nifedipine is the correct choice in this scenario. It is a calcium channel blocker that helps suppress uterine contractions and halt preterm labor. Nifedipine is commonly used to manage preterm labor in pregnant women by relaxing the smooth muscle of the uterus. Oxytocin (Choice A) is used to induce or augment labor, not to inhibit contractions. Dinoprostone (Choice C) and Misoprostol (Choice D) are prostaglandins used for cervical ripening and induction of labor, not for stopping preterm labor.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer a client's first dose of a new antibiotic. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

• A. Assess the client's allergies.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs.
• C. Inform the client of potential side effects.
• D. Obtain the client's informed consent.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing allergies before administering a new medication is crucial as it helps prevent potentially life-threatening allergic reactions like anaphylaxis. While monitoring vital signs and informing the client of side effects are important nursing actions, assessing allergies takes precedence to ensure the client's safety. Informed consent is necessary for the treatment process, but assessing allergies is the priority before administering any new medication.

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