Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Uterine fundus is firm and midline
• B. Client's perineal pad is saturated in 15 minutes
• C. Client reports breast tenderness when breastfeeding
• D. Client's temperature is 100.4°F

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A perineal pad saturated in 15 minutes is a sign of excessive postpartum bleeding, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent postpartum hemorrhage. The other findings are normal postpartum occurrences. A firm and midline uterine fundus indicates proper involution, breast tenderness during breastfeeding is common due to engorgement, and a temperature of 100.4°F is considered within the normal range for the postpartum period.

2. A nurse in a provider’s office is interviewing a client who is requesting an oral contraceptive. Which of the following findings in the client’s history is a contraindication to the use of combination oral contraceptives?

• A. Thyroid disease
• B. Allergy to penicillin
• C. Impaired liver function
• D. Abnormal blood glucose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Impaired liver function is a contraindication to combination oral contraceptives. The liver metabolizes hormones, and any impairment can affect the metabolism of hormones, potentially leading to imbalances or toxicity. Thyroid disease, allergy to penicillin, and abnormal blood glucose levels are not contraindications to combination oral contraceptives.

3. A client prescribed allopurinol for gout is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Drink at least 2 liters of water per day.
• C. Avoid foods high in purines.
• D. Increase your dietary intake of calcium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Drink at least 2 liters of water per day.' Clients taking allopurinol should be instructed to drink plenty of water to prevent kidney stones, a potential side effect of the medication. Option A is incorrect because allopurinol is usually taken without regard to meals. Option C is not directly related to the teaching about allopurinol, as it pertains more to dietary management of gout. Option D is also unrelated to allopurinol use for gout.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider plan to administer?

• A. Lidocaine
• B. Adenosine
• C. Atropine
• D. Verapamil

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client presents with bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain, indicating reduced cardiac output. Atropine is the appropriate choice as it increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, Adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia, and Verapamil for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. These medications are not suitable for the client's current presentation.

5. A nurse is caring for a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the mother to breastfeed the newborn
• B. Gavage feed 60 mL (2 oz) of glucose water
• C. Administer 10 mL of D5W via IV
• D. Recheck the glucose level in 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the mother to breastfeed the newborn is the most appropriate action in this scenario. Breastfeeding can quickly raise blood glucose levels in newborns. A blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL is often acceptable in newborns, but close monitoring is necessary. Gavage feeding with glucose water or administering D5W via IV may not be necessary at this point and could lead to potential risks of overfeeding or hypoglycemia. Rechecking the glucose level in 2 hours may delay necessary intervention, as breastfeeding can promptly address the low blood glucose levels.

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