ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Uterine fundus is firm and midline
- B. Client's perineal pad is saturated in 15 minutes
- C. Client reports breast tenderness when breastfeeding
- D. Client's temperature is 100.4°F
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A perineal pad saturated in 15 minutes is a sign of excessive postpartum bleeding, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent postpartum hemorrhage. The other findings are normal postpartum occurrences. A firm and midline uterine fundus indicates proper involution, breast tenderness during breastfeeding is common due to engorgement, and a temperature of 100.4°F is considered within the normal range for the postpartum period.
2. A client has been taking propranolol. Which of the following findings indicates a need to withhold the medication?
- A. Sodium 130 mEq/L
- B. Blood pressure 156/90 mm Hg
- C. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Pulse 54/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A pulse of 54/min indicates bradycardia, which is a side effect of propranolol, a beta-blocker. The medication should be withheld if the client's pulse drops below 60/min. The other findings (sodium levels, blood pressure, and potassium levels) are not directly indicative of the need to withhold propranolol.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing a prescription for doxazosin with a client. Which instruction should the healthcare provider provide?
- A. Decrease caloric intake to reduce weight gain
- B. Increase dietary fiber to prevent constipation
- C. Rise slowly when sitting up
- D. Take this medication each morning
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed with doxazosin is to rise slowly when sitting up. Doxazosin can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness upon sudden position changes. Instructing the client to rise slowly helps prevent this side effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the potential side effects or administration of doxazosin.
4. A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Place the client in a prone position
- B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
- C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
- D. Administer flumazenil
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.
5. A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Draw a troponin level every four hours
- B. Perform an EKG every 12 hours
- C. Plan for oxygen therapy with a rebreather mask
- D. Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consult
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consult. Cardiac rehabilitation is an essential part of the care plan for a client recovering from a myocardial infarction. It helps in improving recovery, enhancing quality of life, and reducing the risk of future cardiac events. Drawing troponin levels and performing EKGs are important for diagnosing and monitoring myocardial infarctions but are not interventions in the post-MI care plan. Oxygen therapy may be necessary based on the client's condition but is not specific to post-MI care.
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