Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Uterine fundus is firm and midline
• B. Client's perineal pad is saturated in 15 minutes
• C. Client reports breast tenderness when breastfeeding
• D. Client's temperature is 100.4°F

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A perineal pad saturated in 15 minutes is a sign of excessive postpartum bleeding, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent postpartum hemorrhage. The other findings are normal postpartum occurrences. A firm and midline uterine fundus indicates proper involution, breast tenderness during breastfeeding is common due to engorgement, and a temperature of 100.4°F is considered within the normal range for the postpartum period.

2. A nurse is assessing a newborn and notes that the infant has yellow-tinged skin. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

• A. Assess the infant's bilirubin levels
• B. Initiate phototherapy
• C. Monitor the infant's temperature
• D. Encourage breastfeeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yellow-tinged skin (jaundice) in a newborn can indicate hyperbilirubinemia. The priority action is to assess the infant's bilirubin levels to determine the severity of the jaundice and the need for further interventions, such as phototherapy. Initiating phototherapy (choice B) is premature without knowing the actual bilirubin levels. Monitoring the infant's temperature (choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging breastfeeding (choice D) is beneficial but not the priority when dealing with jaundice in a newborn.

3. A nurse is assessing four clients for fluid balance. Which of the following clients is exhibiting manifestations of dehydration?

• A. A client who has a urine specific gravity of 1.010.
• B. A client who has a weight gain of 2.2 kg (2 lb) in 24 hr.
• C. A client who has a hematocrit of 45%.
• D. A client who has a temperature of 39°C (102°F).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an elevated temperature is a common manifestation of dehydration. Choices A, B, and C are not indicative of dehydration. A urine specific gravity of 1.010 is within normal range, weight gain suggests fluid overload, and a hematocrit of 45% is also within normal limits and not specifically related to dehydration.

4. While assessing the IV infusion site of a client who reports pain at the site, a nurse notes redness and warmth along the vein. What should the nurse do?

• A. Continue the infusion
• B. Increase the infusion rate
• C. Discontinue the infusion
• D. Apply a cold compress

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms described indicate phlebitis, which is inflammation of the vein. In this case, the nurse should discontinue the infusion to prevent further complications. Continuing the infusion or increasing the rate can exacerbate the condition. Applying a cold compress is not recommended for phlebitis; instead, a warm compress can help alleviate discomfort.

5. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?

• A. Increased blood pressure
• B. Pulse deficit
• C. Normal heart rate
• D. Elevated oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.

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