ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Respiratory rate
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Apical pulse
- D. Urine output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apical pulse. Digoxin's primary effect is to strengthen the force of the heart's contractions and slow the heart rate. Monitoring the apical pulse is crucial in evaluating the effectiveness of digoxin as it helps assess the medication's impact on the heart's function. Option A, respiratory rate, is not directly related to digoxin's mechanism of action and is not the most appropriate parameter to monitor for this medication. Option B, blood pressure, while important, may not be as sensitive as the apical pulse in assessing the effectiveness of digoxin. Option D, urine output, is more indicative of kidney function and fluid balance, rather than the direct effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bounding pulse
- B. Conjunctival pallor
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Glossitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Conjunctival pallor. In anemia, there is a decrease in hemoglobin levels, leading to paleness of the conjunctiva. This is a common finding in individuals with anemia. Bounding pulse (choice A) is not typically associated with anemia but can be seen in conditions like hyperthyroidism. Elevated blood pressure (choice C) is not a common finding in anemia; instead, blood pressure may be low due to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity. Glossitis (choice D), or a swollen tongue, can be seen in certain types of anemia but is not as specific or common as conjunctival pallor.
3. During a breast examination on a 24-year-old client, the nurse notes the following findings. Which finding is of most concern and should be reported to the provider?
- A. An irregularly shaped, nontender lump palpable in the right breast
- B. Tenderness present during menstruation
- C. Bilateral, symmetrical lumps that move with palpation
- D. The client reports breast tenderness before menstruation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An irregularly shaped, nontender lump is a concerning finding as it may indicate breast cancer. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further investigation. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning findings. Tenderness during menstruation is a common finding due to hormonal changes. Bilateral, symmetrical lumps that move with palpation are often benign findings like fibrocystic changes. Breast tenderness before menstruation is also a common occurrence related to hormonal fluctuations.
4. A nurse is in the emergency department monitoring the hydration status of a client receiving oral rehydration. What should the nurse intervene for?
- A. Heart rate 120/min
- B. Urine output 30 mL/hour
- C. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
- D. Skin turgor is normal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A heart rate of 120/min may indicate dehydration or inadequate hydration, prompting the need for IV fluid replacement. Elevated heart rate is a sensitive indicator of dehydration as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output. Urine output of 30 mL/hour is within the normal range (30 mL/hour is the minimum acceptable urine output for an adult). Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range. Normal skin turgor is a positive sign indicating adequate hydration.
5. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
- B. Oliguria, increased urine concentration, and an increase in urine specific gravity greater than 1.030
- C. Polyuria
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.
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