ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Respiratory rate
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Apical pulse
- D. Urine output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apical pulse. Digoxin's primary effect is to strengthen the force of the heart's contractions and slow the heart rate. Monitoring the apical pulse is crucial in evaluating the effectiveness of digoxin as it helps assess the medication's impact on the heart's function. Option A, respiratory rate, is not directly related to digoxin's mechanism of action and is not the most appropriate parameter to monitor for this medication. Option B, blood pressure, while important, may not be as sensitive as the apical pulse in assessing the effectiveness of digoxin. Option D, urine output, is more indicative of kidney function and fluid balance, rather than the direct effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant for the fourth time. The client delivered two full-term newborns and had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks of gestation. The nurse should document the client's obstetrical history as which of the following?
- A. Gravida 3, Para 2
- B. Gravida 3, Para 3
- C. Gravida 4, Para 2
- D. Gravida 4, Para 3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies (4), and Para refers to the number of viable births (2 full-term births). The client has had 4 pregnancies (Gravida 4) and delivered 2 full-term newborns (Para 2). The spontaneous abortion does not count as a viable birth, so the correct documentation is Gravida 4, Para 2. Choice A is incorrect because it does not account for the full obstetrical history. Choice B is incorrect as the client has not had 3 viable births. Choice C is incorrect as it does not reflect the number of viable births correctly.
3. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a patient who has extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest. While planning the patient’s care, the nurse should identify which of the following risks as the priority for assessment and intervention?
- A. Infection
- B. Airway obstruction
- C. Fluid imbalance
- D. Pain management
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient has extensive burns involving the head, neck, and chest, the priority concern is airway obstruction. The proximity of the burns to the airway can lead to swelling and compromise the patient's ability to breathe. In this situation, ensuring a clear airway and adequate oxygenation takes precedence over other risks such as infection, fluid imbalance, or pain management. While these are also important considerations in burn care, the immediate threat to the patient's life from airway compromise makes it the priority for assessment and intervention.
4. A nurse is admitting a client who is in labor and at 38 weeks of gestation to the maternal newborn unit. The client has a history of herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2). Which of the following questions is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client?
- A. Have your membranes ruptured?
- B. How far apart are your contractions?
- C. Do you have any active lesions?
- D. Are you positive for beta strep?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask the client in this scenario is whether they have any active lesions. Active lesions from HSV-2 during labor increase the risk of neonatal transmission, which would necessitate a cesarean section to prevent the infant from contracting the virus during delivery. Asking about the presence of active lesions is crucial to determine the appropriate management and precautions needed to protect the newborn. Choices A, B, and D are not as pertinent in this situation and do not directly address the potential risk of neonatal transmission of HSV-2.
5. A nurse is caring for a client receiving radiation treatments for cancer. The client states he is experiencing dryness, redness, and scaling at the treatment area. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do?
- A. Sit in the sun for 15 minutes per day.
- B. Apply moist heat to the area twice daily.
- C. Liberally apply prescribed lotion to the area.
- D. Wash the affected area daily with antimicrobial soap.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to liberally apply prescribed lotion to the treatment area. Prescribed hydrating lotions help soothe and protect irradiated skin, reducing dryness, redness, and scaling. Sitting in the sun can further damage the skin. Applying moist heat may exacerbate the skin condition. Washing the area with antimicrobial soap can be too harsh and further irritate the skin.
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