a client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure which of the following should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apical pulse. Digoxin's primary effect is to strengthen the force of the heart's contractions and slow the heart rate. Monitoring the apical pulse is crucial in evaluating the effectiveness of digoxin as it helps assess the medication's impact on the heart's function. Option A, respiratory rate, is not directly related to digoxin's mechanism of action and is not the most appropriate parameter to monitor for this medication. Option B, blood pressure, while important, may not be as sensitive as the apical pulse in assessing the effectiveness of digoxin. Option D, urine output, is more indicative of kidney function and fluid balance, rather than the direct effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure.

2. While caring for a client receiving oxytocin for labor augmentation, the nurse notes contractions occurring every 45 seconds and lasting 90 seconds. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. The client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and complications. By stopping the oxytocin, the nurse can help regulate contractions and prevent harm to the fetus. Increasing the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the issue by further intensifying contractions. Applying an internal fetal monitor may be necessary for closer monitoring but is not the immediate action required. Administering an analgesic is not appropriate in this scenario as the primary concern is addressing the uterine hyperstimulation caused by oxytocin.

3. A client newly diagnosed with osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about preventing complications. Which food should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Oatmeal is an excellent recommendation for clients with osteoporosis due to its richness in fiber and nutrients, making it a heart-healthy and bone-friendly choice. Fried chicken (Choice A) is high in unhealthy fats and lacks the nutrients needed for bone health. Whole milk (Choice B) contains calcium but can be high in saturated fats, which may not be the best choice for individuals with osteoporosis. Bacon (Choice D) is high in saturated fats and sodium, which can have negative effects on bone health and overall well-being.

4. A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has a new prescription for sertraline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I may experience difficulty sleeping while taking this medication.' Sertraline can cause insomnia, especially when first starting the medication, so the client should be aware of this potential side effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because feeling better immediately, increased urination, and decreasing sodium intake are not commonly associated side effects of sertraline.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.

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