a client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure which of the following should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apical pulse. Digoxin's primary effect is to strengthen the force of the heart's contractions and slow the heart rate. Monitoring the apical pulse is crucial in evaluating the effectiveness of digoxin as it helps assess the medication's impact on the heart's function. Option A, respiratory rate, is not directly related to digoxin's mechanism of action and is not the most appropriate parameter to monitor for this medication. Option B, blood pressure, while important, may not be as sensitive as the apical pulse in assessing the effectiveness of digoxin. Option D, urine output, is more indicative of kidney function and fluid balance, rather than the direct effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure.

2. A nurse is planning to delegate to an AP the task of fasting blood glucose testing for a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before delegating any task, the nurse must determine whether the AP is qualified to perform it. In this scenario, verifying the AP's competency to conduct fasting blood glucose testing is crucial for patient safety and compliance with facility protocols. The other choices are incorrect because they do not address the essential step of assessing the AP's ability to perform the delegated task. While helping the AP or assigning tasks related to diabetic medication or medical records are important, the primary concern should be confirming the AP's competence for the specific delegated duty of blood glucose testing.

3. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of sildenafil. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for headaches when taking sildenafil. This medication can cause headaches and other side effects, so it is crucial to inform clients about these potential adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should not be taken with nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Choice C is incorrect as sildenafil is a prescription medication, not an over-the-counter one. Choice D is incorrect because sildenafil, like any medication, can have side effects that should be discussed with the client.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of dehydration. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic sign of dehydration. In dehydration, the body loses more water than it takes in, leading to dryness of mucous membranes like the mouth and throat. Edema (choice A) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in the body's tissues, which is not a typical sign of dehydration. Weight gain (choice C) is also not a common sign of dehydration; in fact, dehydration usually leads to weight loss. Increased urination (choice D) is more indicative of conditions like diabetes or diuretic use, not dehydration.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.

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