Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Apical pulse
• D. Urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apical pulse. Digoxin's primary effect is to strengthen the force of the heart's contractions and slow the heart rate. Monitoring the apical pulse is crucial in evaluating the effectiveness of digoxin as it helps assess the medication's impact on the heart's function. Option A, respiratory rate, is not directly related to digoxin's mechanism of action and is not the most appropriate parameter to monitor for this medication. Option B, blood pressure, while important, may not be as sensitive as the apical pulse in assessing the effectiveness of digoxin. Option D, urine output, is more indicative of kidney function and fluid balance, rather than the direct effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure.

2. A healthcare professional is teaching a client about the use of methotrexate. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It is a pain reliever
• B. Monitor for signs of infection
• C. It can be taken without food
• D. It is safe to use during pregnancy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Methotrexate can suppress the immune system, making the client more susceptible to infections. Educating the client to monitor for signs of infection is crucial for early detection and management. Choice A is incorrect because methotrexate is not a pain reliever; it is commonly used to treat conditions like cancer, rheumatoid arthritis, and psoriasis. Choice C is incorrect because methotrexate is usually recommended to be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because methotrexate is known to be harmful during pregnancy and should not be used by pregnant individuals as it can cause birth defects.

3. A client with cholecystitis has been prescribed a low-fat diet. Which of the following meal selections by the client indicates understanding of the education?

• A. Roast beef with gravy, mashed potatoes, ice cream
• B. Macaroni and cheese, salad, pudding
• C. Creamed chicken on a roll with peas
• D. Roast turkey, rice pilaf, green beans

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Roast turkey is a lean protein option suitable for a low-fat diet. Rice pilaf and green beans are also low in fat. Choices A, B, and C contain high-fat ingredients like gravy, cheese, cream, and ice cream, which are not suitable for a low-fat diet.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for clindamycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Signs of superinfection
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Signs of superinfection. Clindamycin can lead to antibiotic-associated colitis and other superinfections, making it crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of superinfection. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with clindamycin use. Serum potassium levels (choice B) and blood glucose (choice D) are also not directly affected by clindamycin, so they are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

5. A client is at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to increase in their diet?

• A. Yogurt
• B. Apples
• C. Raisins
• D. Cheddar cheese

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, which can help prevent or address iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A) and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. While apples (Choice B) are a healthy fruit, they do not contain as much iron as raisins.

Similar Questions