a client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure which of the following should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apical pulse. Digoxin's primary effect is to strengthen the force of the heart's contractions and slow the heart rate. Monitoring the apical pulse is crucial in evaluating the effectiveness of digoxin as it helps assess the medication's impact on the heart's function. Option A, respiratory rate, is not directly related to digoxin's mechanism of action and is not the most appropriate parameter to monitor for this medication. Option B, blood pressure, while important, may not be as sensitive as the apical pulse in assessing the effectiveness of digoxin. Option D, urine output, is more indicative of kidney function and fluid balance, rather than the direct effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is starting to take carbidopa/levodopa to treat Parkinson’s disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide is that the medication can cause the client's urine to turn a dark color, which is a harmless effect of carbidopa/levodopa. This is due to the metabolites of levodopa. Immediate relief is not expected after taking the medication because it may take weeks to months to achieve the full therapeutic effect. Taking the medication with a high-protein food is not recommended as protein can interfere with the absorption of levodopa. Skipping a dose of the medication if the client experiences dizziness is incorrect as dizziness may be a side effect of the medication, and doses should not be skipped without consulting a healthcare provider.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of warfarin. Which of the following should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check INR levels. Before administering warfarin, it is crucial to check the INR levels to ensure they are within the therapeutic range. This helps to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice B, administering it with food, is incorrect as warfarin should typically be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C, monitoring blood glucose, is unrelated to the administration of warfarin. Choice D, assessing liver function, is important but not the immediate action required before administering warfarin.

4. A nurse is planning to delegate client assignments to the assistive personnel. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the nurse to delegate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Collect a urine sample. Delegating this task to assistive personnel is appropriate as it falls within their scope of practice. Tasks like adjusting the flow rate of oxygen tanks, measuring pain levels, and monitoring blood glucose levels require clinical judgment and should be performed by a nurse. It is important for nurses to delegate tasks that align with the competencies of assistive personnel to ensure safe and effective patient care.

5. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.

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