a client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure which of the following should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apical pulse. Digoxin's primary effect is to strengthen the force of the heart's contractions and slow the heart rate. Monitoring the apical pulse is crucial in evaluating the effectiveness of digoxin as it helps assess the medication's impact on the heart's function. Option A, respiratory rate, is not directly related to digoxin's mechanism of action and is not the most appropriate parameter to monitor for this medication. Option B, blood pressure, while important, may not be as sensitive as the apical pulse in assessing the effectiveness of digoxin. Option D, urine output, is more indicative of kidney function and fluid balance, rather than the direct effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure.

2. A nurse in the telemetry unit is receiving the laboratory findings for an adult male client who is being treated for a myocardial infarction. Which of the following is an expected finding for the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Troponin I is a specific marker for myocardial infarction, and levels of 8 ng/mL are elevated, indicating heart muscle damage. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is more related to heart failure rather than myocardial infarction, making choice B incorrect. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is a liver enzyme and not specific to myocardial infarction, so choice C is incorrect. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is a type of cholesterol and is not typically used to diagnose or monitor myocardial infarction, making choice D incorrect.

3. A client has been prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide to a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take it with fluids other than coffee or tea. Coffee and tea can inhibit iron absorption. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding strawberries, citrus fruits, and melon is not necessary for improving absorption of ferrous sulfate, taking it on a full stomach is not recommended, and doubling the dose if a dose is missed can lead to an overdose.

4. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 48 hours old and has a maternal history of methadone use during pregnancy. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as an indication of neonatal abstinence syndrome?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An excessive high-pitched cry is a classic sign of neonatal abstinence syndrome, indicating withdrawal from substances such as methadone. Neonates with neonatal abstinence syndrome often display irritability, tremors, and feeding difficulties. Hyporeactivity, acrocyanosis, and a respiratory rate of 50/min are not typical manifestations of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Hyporeactivity is more associated with conditions like hypothyroidism or sepsis, acrocyanosis is a common finding in newborns due to immature peripheral circulation, and a respiratory rate of 50/min is within the normal range for a newborn.

5. A nurse is caring for a toddler with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a designated stethoscope for the toddler is crucial to reduce the risk of spreading RSV to other patients. Choice B is incorrect because N95 respirator masks are not specifically indicated for RSV. Choice C is unnecessary as RSV does not require isolation in a negative pressure room. Choice D is incorrect because the gown should be removed after leaving the room to prevent transmission of pathogens to other areas.

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