Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is admitting a client who has anorexia nervosa. Which of the following is an expected finding?

• A. Iron 90 mcg/dl.
• B. Prealbumin 10 mcg/dl.
• C. Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dl.
• D. Calcium 9.5 mg/dl.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Low prealbumin levels are indicative of malnutrition, which is common in individuals with anorexia nervosa. Iron levels, serum creatinine, and calcium levels are not typically affected in the same way by anorexia nervosa, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

2. A healthcare provider is checking a newborn's vital signs. Which of the following methods of temperature measurement should the healthcare provider use?

• A. Rectal
• B. Axillary
• C. Oral
• D. Tympanic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The axillary method is the most appropriate for newborns because it is non-invasive and safe. Rectal temperature measurement can be uncomfortable and poses a risk of injury, especially in newborns. Oral temperature measurement is not recommended for newborns due to their inability to cooperate and potential inaccuracies. Tympanic temperature measurement may not be as accurate in newborns compared to older children or adults.

3. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with acute renal failure?

• A. Monitor urine output and administer diuretics
• B. Administer IV fluids and restrict potassium intake
• C. Monitor electrolyte levels and provide dietary education
• D. Administer potassium and restrict fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In acute renal failure, it is crucial to monitor urine output to assess kidney function and fluid balance. Administering diuretics helps manage fluid levels by promoting urine production. Choice B is incorrect because administering IV fluids can worsen fluid overload in renal failure patients, and restricting potassium intake is not typically the initial approach. Choice C is not the primary intervention but is important for long-term management. Choice D is incorrect as administering potassium can be dangerous in renal failure, and restricting fluids can lead to dehydration.

4. A nurse is administering lorazepam to a client who is scheduled for surgery within 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take after administering the medication?

• A. Keep the client awake
• B. Instruct the client not to get out of bed
• C. Encourage the client to drink fluids
• D. Encourage early ambulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client not to get out of bed. Lorazepam is a sedative that can cause drowsiness and impair coordination. By instructing the client not to get out of bed, the nurse helps prevent falls or injuries that could occur due to the medication's sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect as keeping the client awake may not be necessary and could lead to unnecessary discomfort. Choice C is incorrect as encouraging the client to drink fluids is not directly related to the administration of lorazepam. Choice D is incorrect as early ambulation is not safe immediately after administering a sedative medication.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer insulin
• B. Administer glucagon
• C. Administer 4 oz of orange juice
• D. Administer 1 L of water

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering 4 oz of orange juice is the appropriate action for a client experiencing hypoglycemia due to diabetes mellitus. Orange juice contains simple sugars that can quickly raise blood glucose levels. Insulin (Choice A) would further lower blood sugar, worsening the condition. Glucagon (Choice B) is used in severe hypoglycemia when the client cannot take anything by mouth. Administering 1 L of water (Choice D) is not indicated in hypoglycemia treatment; the priority is to raise blood sugar levels. Therefore, the correct choice is to administer orange juice to address the low blood sugar in this situation.

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