which of the following is an early indicator that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. Which of the following is an early indicator that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Irritability is an early indicator that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy because it can signal discomfort or difficulty breathing due to mucus accumulation, prompting the need for suctioning to clear the airway. Bradycardia (Choice A) and hypotension (Choice B) are not typically early indicators of the need for suctioning in a client with a tracheostomy. Confusion (Choice D) is also not a direct early indicator of the need for suctioning in this context.

2. The nurse is caring for a manic client in the seclusion room, and it is time for lunch. It is MOST appropriate for the nurse to take which of the following actions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the manic client is in the seclusion room, and it is most appropriate for the nurse to serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room. This action helps maintain the client's nutritional needs while managing their behavior. Taking the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision (Choice A) may pose safety risks both for the client and others. Informing the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior (Choice B) may not be feasible in a manic state. Holding the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion (Choice C) can lead to nutritional deficiencies and does not address the immediate need for nutrition during the episode of mania.

3. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

4. A nurse is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which of the following client information should the nurse include in the report?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Platelets 100,000/mm3." A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is low and increases the client's risk for bleeding, which is crucial information to communicate during the change-of-shift report. Choices A, B, and C provide values within normal ranges and are not directly related to the client's postoperative status or risk for complications. Therefore, they are not the priority information to include in the report.

5. What are the risk factors for developing pneumonia in older adults?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and decreased lung function. Older adults with immobility and decreased lung function are at a higher risk of developing pneumonia. Immobility can lead to decreased lung expansion and impaired clearance of secretions, predisposing to pneumonia. While poor hygiene, aspiration, use of respiratory equipment, medications, poor nutritional status, and compromised immune system can also contribute to pneumonia risk, they are not as directly associated with pneumonia in older adults as immobility and decreased lung function.

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