ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has hypertension. Which of the following findings should the provider identify as a risk factor for this condition?
- A. Age 25 years
- B. Family history of hypotension
- C. Obesity
- D. History of hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a significant risk factor for hypertension due to its impact on the cardiovascular system. Obesity can lead to increased blood pressure due to the additional workload placed on the heart and blood vessels. Age alone does not necessarily predispose someone to hypertension, and a family history of hypotension or a personal history of hypotension would not increase the risk of developing hypertension. Family history of hypotension is not a known risk factor for hypertension, and a history of hypotension actually indicates low blood pressure, which is the opposite of hypertension.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis via an AV fistula. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Avoid taking blood pressures on the arm with the AV fistula.
- B. Check the fistula site daily for pallor.
- C. Place a warm compress over the fistula site every 4 hours.
- D. Keep the client's arm elevated on two pillows.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention is to avoid taking blood pressures on the arm with the AV fistula. This is crucial to prevent complications such as damage to the fistula. Checking the fistula site for pallor is not as important as avoiding blood pressures on the affected arm. Placing warm compresses over the fistula site is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Keeping the client's arm elevated on two pillows is not necessary for the care of an AV fistula.
3. A nurse is caring for an infant who is receiving IV fluids for dehydration. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the therapy?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign that the IV fluids are effectively treating dehydration. Tachycardia (choice A) and hypotension (choice B) are signs of dehydration and would not be considered positive responses to therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) can worsen dehydration and is not a positive response to IV fluid therapy.
4. How can pain in a post-operative patient be managed effectively?
- A. Administer analgesics as prescribed
- B. Encourage deep breathing exercises
- C. Provide distractions
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Managing pain in a post-operative patient requires a multimodal approach, which includes both pharmacological and non-pharmacological strategies. Administering analgesics as prescribed helps in controlling pain pharmacologically. Encouraging deep breathing exercises can aid in pain management by promoting relaxation and reducing anxiety. Providing distractions, such as music or activities, can help divert the patient's attention from pain. Therefore, all the given options are essential components of an effective pain management plan for post-operative patients.
5. What should a healthcare provider prioritize for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder?
- A. Monitor for hyperactivity
- B. Monitor for signs of depression
- C. Monitor for changes in self-esteem
- D. Monitor for changes in energy levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder, the priority is to monitor for signs of depression. Individuals with bipolar disorder are at risk of severe depressive episodes, making it crucial to watch for signs of depression. While changes in energy levels and self-esteem are common in bipolar disorder, they are not the primary focus. Hyperactivity is a characteristic of the manic phase of bipolar disorder, so monitoring for depression is the priority in this case.
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