Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has hypertension. Which of the following findings should the provider identify as a risk factor for this condition?

• A. Age 25 years
• B. Family history of hypotension
• C. Obesity
• D. History of hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a significant risk factor for hypertension due to its impact on the cardiovascular system. Obesity can lead to increased blood pressure due to the additional workload placed on the heart and blood vessels. Age alone does not necessarily predispose someone to hypertension, and a family history of hypotension or a personal history of hypotension would not increase the risk of developing hypertension. Family history of hypotension is not a known risk factor for hypertension, and a history of hypotension actually indicates low blood pressure, which is the opposite of hypertension.

2. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with dehydration?

• A. Monitor fluid intake
• B. Encourage oral rehydration
• C. Administer IV fluids
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dehydration management involves a comprehensive approach that includes monitoring fluid intake to assess the severity of dehydration, encouraging oral rehydration to replenish fluids orally if the patient can tolerate it, and administering IV fluids in severe cases where oral intake is insufficient. Choosing just one of these options may not address the diverse needs of patients with dehydration. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate response as it encompasses the various strategies required for effective dehydration management.

3. What is the priority intervention when managing a client with delirium?

• A. Administer antipsychotic medication to calm the client
• B. Identify any reversible causes of delirium
• C. Provide a low-stimulation environment
• D. Administer sedative medication to control agitation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. Delirium is often caused by underlying issues such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. Addressing these root causes can help resolve delirium more effectively. Administering antipsychotic or sedative medications should not be the initial approach as they can worsen delirium in some cases. Providing a low-stimulation environment is beneficial but not the priority when reversible causes need to be addressed first.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. What is the first action?

• A. Administer the blood through an IV push
• B. Verify the client's blood type before starting the transfusion
• C. Warm the blood to body temperature before administration
• D. Ensure the client eats before starting the transfusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action when preparing to administer a blood transfusion is to verify the client's blood type before starting the transfusion. This step is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions and complications. Option A is incorrect because blood transfusions should not be administered through an IV push due to the risk of rapid infusion and adverse reactions. Option C is incorrect because blood should be transfused at room temperature, not body temperature. Option D is incorrect because it is not necessary for the client to eat before a blood transfusion.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Zolpidem
• C. Morphine
• D. Lorazepam

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.

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