ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has hypertension. Which of the following findings should the provider identify as a risk factor for this condition?
- A. Age 25 years
- B. Family history of hypotension
- C. Obesity
- D. History of hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a significant risk factor for hypertension due to its impact on the cardiovascular system. Obesity can lead to increased blood pressure due to the additional workload placed on the heart and blood vessels. Age alone does not necessarily predispose someone to hypertension, and a family history of hypotension or a personal history of hypotension would not increase the risk of developing hypertension. Family history of hypotension is not a known risk factor for hypertension, and a history of hypotension actually indicates low blood pressure, which is the opposite of hypertension.
2. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with hyperkalemia?
- A. Monitor ECG and administer insulin
- B. Monitor blood glucose levels and provide fluids
- C. Monitor for muscle weakness and administer calcium gluconate
- D. Monitor electrolyte levels and provide potassium supplements
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: When assessing a patient with hyperkalemia, monitoring the ECG and administering insulin are crucial steps. Hyperkalemia can affect the heart's function, leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the ECG helps in identifying any cardiac abnormalities associated with high potassium levels. Administering insulin, along with glucose, helps shift potassium from the bloodstream into the cells, temporarily lowering the potassium levels. Choice B is incorrect because monitoring blood glucose levels and providing fluids are not the primary interventions for hyperkalemia. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring for muscle weakness and administering calcium gluconate are not the first-line treatments for hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate may be used in specific situations to stabilize cardiac cell membranes in severe cases of hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring electrolyte levels and providing potassium supplements would worsen hyperkalemia, as the patient already has elevated potassium levels and does not require additional potassium supplementation.
3. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter?
- A. Monitor urine output and ensure proper drainage
- B. Administer antibiotics and change the catheter regularly
- C. Monitor for signs of infection and provide catheter care
- D. Provide high-sodium diet and monitor hydration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring urine output and ensuring proper catheter drainage are crucial aspects of managing a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter. This helps in assessing the patient's renal function, fluid balance, and the patency of the catheter. Administering antibiotics and changing the catheter regularly (Choice B) may not be necessary unless there is an infection present. While monitoring for signs of infection and providing catheter care (Choice C) are important, the primary focus should be on urine output and drainage. Providing a high-sodium diet and monitoring hydration (Choice D) are not directly related to managing an indwelling urinary catheter.
4. Which of the following is an early indication that a tracheostomy client requires suctioning?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Irritability
- C. Hypotension
- D. Decreased respiratory rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irritability is indeed an early sign that a tracheostomy client may require suctioning. When a tracheostomy client becomes irritable, it can indicate that there is a need for suctioning to clear the airway. Bradycardia (choice A) refers to a slow heart rate and is not typically a direct indication for suctioning. Hypotension (choice C) indicates low blood pressure and is not specifically related to the need for suctioning. Decreased respiratory rate (choice D) can be a sign of respiratory distress, but irritability is a more direct and early indication of the need for suctioning in a tracheostomy client.
5. A nurse assisting with a childbirth class is discussing nonpharmacological strategies used during labor. Which of the following statements by a client indicates an understanding of cutaneous stimulation?
- A. Apply counter-pressure for back pain
- B. Use deep breathing exercises
- C. Visualize the baby's head
- D. Use massage therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Apply counter-pressure for back pain.' Counter-pressure involves applying pressure to the lower back to alleviate pain during labor. This technique is a form of cutaneous stimulation, which can help with pain relief. Choice B, deep breathing exercises, is a form of relaxation technique and does not directly involve cutaneous stimulation. Choice C, visualizing the baby's head, is a mental imagery technique and does not involve physical stimulation of the skin. Choice D, massage therapy, is a tactile stimulation technique but is not specifically focused on back pain relief through counter-pressure.
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