when caring for a client diagnosed with delirium what condition should the nurse prioritize investigating
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020

1. When caring for a client diagnosed with delirium, what condition should the nurse prioritize investigating?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to investigate for signs of infection when caring for a client diagnosed with delirium. Infections can frequently cause or worsen delirium. While investigating medication history, sensory deficits, and cognitive functioning may be important in the overall care of the client, when prioritizing, the nurse should first rule out or address potential infections due to their significant impact on delirium.

2. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hr postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours is crucial to ensure adequate pain control in the immediate postoperative period. Choice A is incorrect because clear liquids are typically initiated gradually and advanced as tolerated but not specifically at 6 hours post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect as cromolyn nebulizer solution is not indicated for postoperative pain management in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as applying a warm compress may not be appropriate for the operative site after appendicitis surgery and can potentially increase the risk of infection.

3. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with a potential myocardial infarction (MI)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. When assessing a patient with a potential myocardial infarction, it is crucial to assess symptoms, monitor vital signs like blood pressure and heart rate, and order an electrocardiogram (ECG) to evaluate for cardiac abnormalities. Choice B is incorrect because administering medications should be based on the findings of the assessment and diagnostic tests, not administered indiscriminately. Choice C is incorrect because the administration of thrombolytics and oxygen therapy should be based on specific criteria and should be done in a controlled setting. Choice D is incorrect as educating the patient on lifestyle changes is important for prevention but is not the immediate priority when managing a potential myocardial infarction.

4. What are the risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and poor diet are established risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes. Obesity puts extra pressure on the body's ability to properly control blood sugar levels. A sedentary lifestyle contributes to weight gain and insulin resistance. Poor diet, especially one high in processed foods and sugary beverages, can also increase the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because age, gender, family history, smoking, alcohol consumption, and hypertension can impact overall health but are not the primary risk factors for Type 2 diabetes.

5. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Shuffling gait. A shuffling gait can indicate extrapyramidal symptoms, a potentially serious side effect of haloperidol. Extrapyramidal symptoms include movement disorders such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as urgent or indicative of serious complications compared to a shuffling gait.

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