ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. What are the risk factors for stroke, and how can it be prevented?
- A. High cholesterol and hypertension; prevent with regular exercise
- B. Obesity and smoking; prevent with medication and weight loss
- C. Diabetes and alcohol consumption; prevent with regular checkups
- D. Lack of exercise and poor diet; prevent with lifestyle changes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. High cholesterol and hypertension are significant risk factors for stroke. Regular exercise is an effective way to prevent stroke by managing these risk factors. Choice B is incorrect as while obesity and smoking are risk factors, preventing stroke through medication and weight loss is not the primary method. Choice C is incorrect as diabetes and alcohol consumption are risk factors, but preventing stroke through regular checkups is not as direct as managing cholesterol and hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as lack of exercise and a poor diet are indeed risk factors, but the prevention of stroke through lifestyle changes needs to specifically address high cholesterol and hypertension.
2. A nurse on an acute unit has received a change of shift report for 4 clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who is 1 hr postoperative and has hypoactive bowel sounds.
- B. A client who has a fractured left tibia and pallor in the affected extremity.
- C. A client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses.
- D. A client who has an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because pallor in an extremity after a fracture could indicate compromised circulation, making it a priority for assessment. Choice A is not the priority as hypoactive bowel sounds in a client 1 hr postoperative, while concerning, do not indicate a life-threatening condition. Choice C, a client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses, indicates good perfusion and does not require immediate attention. Choice D, a client with an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin, may require further assessment but is not as urgent as the client with potential compromised circulation in choice B.
3. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with acute renal failure?
- A. Monitor urine output and administer diuretics
- B. Administer IV fluids and restrict potassium intake
- C. Monitor electrolyte levels and provide dietary education
- D. Administer potassium and restrict fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In acute renal failure, it is crucial to monitor urine output to assess kidney function and fluid balance. Administering diuretics helps manage fluid levels by promoting urine production. Choice B is incorrect because administering IV fluids can worsen fluid overload in renal failure patients, and restricting potassium intake is not typically the initial approach. Choice C is not the primary intervention but is important for long-term management. Choice D is incorrect as administering potassium can be dangerous in renal failure, and restricting fluids can lead to dehydration.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in severe pain. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask first?
- A. How severe is your pain on a scale of 1 to 10?
- B. Where is your pain located?
- C. What medication are you taking for the pain?
- D. When did the pain start?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Where is your pain located?' When a client is experiencing severe pain, determining the location of the pain is crucial as it helps the nurse identify potential causes and select appropriate interventions. Option A may be important but assessing the location of pain takes precedence as it can provide valuable information for immediate management. Option C focuses on the current treatment, which is important but not the first priority. Option D, knowing when the pain started, is relevant but does not help in immediate pain management.
5. What are the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure?
- A. Systolic: Reduced ejection fraction; Diastolic: Preserved ejection fraction
- B. Systolic: Preserved ejection fraction; Diastolic: Reduced ejection fraction
- C. Systolic: Right-sided heart failure; Diastolic: Left-sided heart failure
- D. Systolic: Pulmonary congestion; Diastolic: Systemic congestion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Systolic heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction, meaning the heart is not pumping effectively. Diastolic heart failure, on the other hand, is characterized by preserved ejection fraction, indicating that the heart has difficulty relaxing and filling properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure.
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