Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Increase in frequency of swallowing.
• B. Moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad.
• C. Bruising to the face.
• D. Absent gag reflex.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in frequency of swallowing. After rhinoplasty, an increase in frequency of swallowing may indicate possible bleeding, which requires immediate action by the nurse. The client could be experiencing postoperative bleeding, and prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications. Choice B, moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad, is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require immediate action unless it becomes excessive. Choice C, bruising to the face, is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate action unless it is excessive or affects the airway. Choice D, absent gag reflex, would not be expected immediately following rhinoplasty and would require intervention, but the manifestation of increased swallowing frequency is a higher priority due to its association with potential bleeding.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube post-surgery. What is the most important assessment?

• A. Ensure the chest tube is clamped periodically
• B. Check for air leaks and ensure proper chest tube function
• C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
• D. Ensure the client is positioned in a high Fowler's position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check for air leaks and ensure proper chest tube function.' This is the most important assessment for a client with a chest tube post-surgery because it ensures that the chest tube is functioning properly. Checking for air leaks helps prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Choice A is incorrect because clamping the chest tube periodically can lead to serious complications and should not be done unless specifically ordered by a healthcare provider. Choice C is important for promoting lung expansion but is not the most critical assessment related to the chest tube. Choice D is also important for respiratory function but is not the priority when assessing a chest tube post-surgery.

3. A 23-year-old woman at 32-weeks gestation is seen in the outpatient clinic. Which of the following findings, if assessed by the nurse, would indicate a possible complication?

• A. The client's urine test is positive for glucose and acetone
• B. The client has 1+ pedal edema in both feet at the end of the day
• C. The client complains of an increase in vaginal discharge
• D. The client says she feels pressure against her diaphragm when the baby moves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Positive urine glucose and acetone could indicate gestational diabetes or preeclampsia, both of which are complications. Choice B, pedal edema, is common in pregnancy but may also be a sign of preeclampsia if severe. Choice C, an increase in vaginal discharge, is a normal finding in pregnancy due to hormonal changes. Choice D, pressure against the diaphragm when the baby moves, is a normal sensation due to the growing uterus displacing abdominal contents.

4. The nurse is caring for an 80-year-old client with Parkinson's disease. Which of the following nursing goals is MOST realistic and appropriate in planning care for this client?

• A. Facilitate the client in returning to usual activities of daily living
• B. Maintain optimal function within the client's limitations
• C. Assist the client in preparing for a peaceful and dignified death
• D. Delay the progression of the disease process in the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining optimal function within the client's limitations is the most realistic and appropriate nursing goal when caring for an 80-year-old client with Parkinson's disease. This goal focuses on maximizing the client's abilities and quality of life while acknowledging the impact of the disease. Option A is less realistic as returning to usual activities may not always be achievable in the case of Parkinson's disease. Option C is not appropriate as it does not address the client's current condition and care needs. Option D is less realistic as Parkinson's disease is progressive, and delaying its progression may not be entirely feasible.

5. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing a seizure?

• A. Protect the airway and monitor for post-ictal confusion
• B. Administer anticonvulsant medications
• C. Apply restraints to prevent injury
• D. Place the patient in a side-lying position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient is experiencing a seizure, the immediate priority is to ensure their safety by placing them in a side-lying position. This helps prevent aspiration in case of vomiting and maintains an open airway. Administering anticonvulsant medications is not within the scope of a healthcare provider's immediate response during a seizure. Applying restraints can potentially harm the patient by restricting movement and causing injury. Monitoring for post-ictal confusion is important after the seizure has ended, but the primary concern during the seizure is ensuring the patient's safety.

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