Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Increase in frequency of swallowing.
• B. Moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad.
• C. Bruising to the face.
• D. Absent gag reflex.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in frequency of swallowing. After rhinoplasty, an increase in frequency of swallowing may indicate possible bleeding, which requires immediate action by the nurse. The client could be experiencing postoperative bleeding, and prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications. Choice B, moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad, is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require immediate action unless it becomes excessive. Choice C, bruising to the face, is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate action unless it is excessive or affects the airway. Choice D, absent gag reflex, would not be expected immediately following rhinoplasty and would require intervention, but the manifestation of increased swallowing frequency is a higher priority due to its association with potential bleeding.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is undergoing screening for prostate cancer. The nurse should expect an elevation in which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
• B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
• C. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
• D. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). PSA is a marker specifically used for prostate cancer screening. Elevated levels of PSA can indicate prostate cancer or other prostate-related issues, prompting the need for further diagnostic investigations. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with prostate cancer screening. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is related to pregnancy, alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is associated with liver and germ cell tumors, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is linked to colorectal cancer.

3. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing a seizure?

• A. Protect the airway and monitor for post-ictal confusion
• B. Administer anticonvulsant medications
• C. Apply restraints to prevent injury
• D. Place the patient in a side-lying position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient is experiencing a seizure, the immediate priority is to ensure their safety by placing them in a side-lying position. This helps prevent aspiration in case of vomiting and maintains an open airway. Administering anticonvulsant medications is not within the scope of a healthcare provider's immediate response during a seizure. Applying restraints can potentially harm the patient by restricting movement and causing injury. Monitoring for post-ictal confusion is important after the seizure has ended, but the primary concern during the seizure is ensuring the patient's safety.

4. What should a healthcare professional prioritize when managing a client with delirium?

• A. Administering sedative medication
• B. Providing a low-stimulation environment
• C. Identifying the underlying cause of the delirium
• D. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When managing a client with delirium, the priority should be to identify the underlying cause of the delirium. Delirium can result from various triggers such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare professionals can provide targeted treatment and improve outcomes. Administering sedative medication (Choice A) could exacerbate delirium as these drugs can worsen confusion. While providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice B) is beneficial, it is not as critical as identifying the cause. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication (Choice D) should only be considered after identifying and addressing the underlying cause of delirium.

5. What is the appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing hypovolemic shock?

• A. Administer IV fluids
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position
• D. Administer oxygen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient experiencing hypovolemic shock is to administer IV fluids. In hypovolemic shock, there is a significant loss of circulating blood volume leading to inadequate perfusion to tissues. Administering IV fluids is crucial to restore blood volume and improve tissue perfusion. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is important but not the primary intervention in hypovolemic shock. Placing the patient in Trendelenburg position (choice C) can worsen outcomes by increasing intracranial pressure and is no longer recommended. Administering oxygen (choice D) is beneficial for many conditions but does not address the underlying issue of inadequate circulating blood volume in hypovolemic shock.

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