Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in the emergency department is preparing to care for a client who arrived via ambulance. The client is disoriented and has a cardiac arrhythmia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Proceed with treatment without obtaining written consent
• B. Contact the client's next of kin to obtain consent for treatment
• C. Have the client sign a consent for treatment
• D. Notify risk management before initiating treatment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where a client is disoriented and has a cardiac arrhythmia, obtaining written consent may not be possible due to the urgency of the situation. The priority is to provide immediate treatment to ensure patient safety. Contacting the next of kin or having the client sign a consent form would cause unnecessary delays in providing critical care. Notifying risk management before initiating treatment is not the most appropriate action when dealing with a time-sensitive situation like a cardiac arrhythmia.

2. A nurse manager observes an assistive personnel (AP) incorrectly transferring a client to the bedside commode. Which of the following should the nurse take first?

• A. Refer the AP to the facility procedure manual
• B. Demonstrate the proper client transfer technique for the AP
• C. Instruct the AP to request assistance when unsure about a task
• D. Help the AP assist the client with the transfer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse is to ensure the safety of the client by immediately intervening to help the AP with the transfer. This hands-on assistance can prevent any potential harm to the client. Referring the AP to the facility procedure manual (Choice A) might take time and delay the necessary immediate action. Demonstrating the proper technique (Choice B) can be done after ensuring the client's safety. Instructing the AP to request assistance (Choice C) is not the most urgent step when a client's safety is at risk.

3. A client with type 1 DM has a finger stick glucose level of 258mg/dl at bedtime. An order for sliding scale insulin exists. The nurse should:

• A. Call the physician
• B. Encourage the intake of fluids
• C. Administer the insulin as ordered
• D. Give the client ½ cup of orange juice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with type 1 DM has a high glucose level at bedtime. The appropriate action for the nurse is to administer the sliding scale insulin as ordered. This insulin regimen is specifically designed to manage high blood glucose levels. Calling the physician is not necessary as the protocol for sliding scale insulin is already in place. Encouraging fluid intake or providing orange juice is not the correct intervention for addressing high blood glucose levels in this case.

4. A charge nurse notices that two staff nurses are not taking meal breaks during their shifts. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Discuss time management strategies with the nurses
• B. Provide coverage for the nurses' breaks
• C. Determine the reasons the nurses are not taking scheduled breaks
• D. Review policies for taking scheduled breaks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to determine the reasons the nurses are not taking scheduled breaks. This action is crucial as it allows the charge nurse to understand the underlying causes for the behavior. By identifying the reasons, the nurse can then address the root of the issue effectively. Option A is incorrect because discussing time management strategies may not address the specific reasons for not taking breaks. Option B is incorrect as providing coverage for breaks does not address the underlying cause of the issue. Option D is also incorrect as reviewing policies should come after understanding the reasons for the behavior.

5. Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
• B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
• C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
• D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.

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