ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. In an emergency department, a provider is assessing a client with an acute head injury following a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following findings should be prioritized?
- A. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13
- B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Anisocoria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority finding is the clear fluid leaking from the nose, which could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak and potential brain injury. This requires immediate attention to assess for possible cerebrospinal fluid leak, which is a serious complication of head trauma and needs prompt intervention to prevent further complications. While a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 may indicate a mild alteration in consciousness, it is not as urgent as assessing for a cerebrospinal fluid leak. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms after head injuries but do not take precedence over assessing for a potential cerebrospinal fluid leak. Anisocoria (unequal pupils) is also important to note but is not as urgent as identifying a possible cerebrospinal fluid leak in this scenario.
2. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should increase my intake of foods high in vitamin D.
- B. I should decrease my intake of foods high in calcium.
- C. I should increase my intake of foods high in phosphorus.
- D. I should decrease my intake of foods high in potassium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Increasing intake of foods high in vitamin D is beneficial for improving calcium absorption and managing osteoporosis. Vitamin D helps the body absorb calcium, which is essential for bone health and can aid in managing osteoporosis effectively. Choice B is incorrect because reducing calcium intake would be counterproductive for a client with osteoporosis, as calcium is crucial for bone strength. Choice C is incorrect as phosphorus, while important for bone health, does not directly impact osteoporosis management as much as vitamin D and calcium. Choice D is incorrect as potassium is not directly linked to osteoporosis management, and reducing its intake is not typically part of dietary recommendations for osteoporosis.
3. A client has a new diagnosis of osteoarthritis and is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?
- A. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
- B. Avoid foods that are high in potassium.
- C. Increase your intake of vitamin D-rich foods.
- D. Avoid foods that are high in sodium.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching is to increase the intake of vitamin D-rich foods. Vitamin D helps improve calcium absorption, which is beneficial for bone health and may help alleviate symptoms of osteoarthritis. Option A is incorrect because while calcium is important for bone health, the focus should be on vitamin D for calcium absorption. Option B is incorrect as potassium is generally not restricted in osteoarthritis. Option D is also incorrect as sodium restriction is more relevant for conditions like hypertension or heart failure, not specifically for osteoarthritis.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Decreased creatinine
- C. Increased potassium
- D. Increased calcium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.
5. When planning care for a client with a pressure ulcer, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Massage the reddened area.
- B. Apply a donut-shaped cushion.
- C. Reposition the client every 3 hours.
- D. Use a transparent film dressing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a pressure ulcer is to use a transparent film dressing. This dressing provides a protective barrier against external contaminants while allowing for wound inspection, promoting healing. Massaging the reddened area can cause further damage to the skin and should be avoided. Donut-shaped cushions can increase pressure on the ulcer site rather than alleviate it. Repositioning the client every 2 hours is a preventive measure for pressure ulcers, but once an ulcer has developed, using a transparent film dressing is a more appropriate intervention to facilitate healing and protect the wound site.
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