HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. When transferring a client to a long-term care facility, what information should the nurse include in the handoff report?
- A. Frequency of previous vital sign measurements
- B. Number of family members who have visited
- C. Time of the client's last bath
- D. Effectiveness of the last dose of pain medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Effectiveness of the last dose of pain medication.' When transferring a client to a long-term care facility, it is crucial to provide information on the effectiveness of the last dose of pain medication to ensure continuity of care and appropriate pain management. This information helps the receiving facility understand the client's current pain status and plan future interventions accordingly. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant for the handoff report in this scenario. The frequency of previous vital sign measurements may be important, but the immediate effectiveness of pain medication takes precedence. The number of family members who have visited and the time of the client's last bath are not as critical for the receiving facility's immediate care planning compared to pain management details.
2. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
- B. Complete a functional assessment of the client's self-care abilities
- C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
- D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The first action the nurse should implement is to determine the size and depth of the skin breakdown over the sacral area. This initial assessment will provide crucial information on the extent of the damage and guide appropriate care interventions. Option A is not the priority in this scenario as the immediate concern is addressing the existing skin breakdown. Option B, completing a functional assessment, is important but should come after addressing the acute issue of skin breakdown. Option C, applying a barrier ointment, may be beneficial later but does not address the primary need of assessing the extent of the current skin damage.
3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
- B. Irregular heart rhythm
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.
4. A nurse is calculating a client's fluid intake over the past 8 hr. Which of the following items should the nurse plan to document on the client's intake and output record as 120 mL of fluid?
- A. 2 cups of soup
- B. 1 quart of water
- C. 8 oz of ice chips
- D. 6 oz of tea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 8 oz of ice chips. When calculating fluid intake, the nurse should document half of the volume of ice chips to account for the air in between the chips. Therefore, 8 oz of ice chips equals 120 mL of fluid. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not equate to 120 mL of fluid intake as per the given scenario. Choice A, 2 cups of soup, is more than 120 mL. Choice B, 1 quart of water, is significantly more than 120 mL. Choice D, 6 oz of tea, is less than 120 mL.
5. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum albumin
- D. Serum sodium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.
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