Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
• C. Oxybutynin
• D. Nitrofurantoin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.

2. A nurse is preparing to teach a client with chronic renal failure. Which dietary instruction is most appropriate?

• A. Increase calcium intake
• B. Increase potassium intake
• C. Increase protein intake
• D. Restrict protein intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to restrict protein intake for a client with chronic renal failure. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products. Excessive protein intake can lead to the accumulation of waste products, increasing the workload on the kidneys. Therefore, restricting protein intake is essential to prevent further kidney damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Increasing calcium intake is not specifically indicated for chronic renal failure. Increasing potassium intake can be dangerous in renal failure as impaired kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium. Increasing protein intake is contraindicated in chronic renal failure as it can worsen kidney function and increase the accumulation of waste products.

3. A nurse in the emergency department is prioritizing care for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A 6-year-old with a dislocated shoulder
• B. A 26-year-old with sickle cell disease and severe joint pain
• C. A 76-year-old with confusion, fever, and foul-smelling urine
• D. A 50-year-old with slurred speech, disorientation, and headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client with slurred speech, disorientation, and a headache may be experiencing a stroke, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Identifying and managing a stroke promptly can reduce the risk of long-term disability or complications. The other options, although important, do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. A dislocated shoulder, severe joint pain in sickle cell disease, confusion with fever and foul-smelling urine, while concerning, can be addressed after attending to the client with potential stroke symptoms.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to transfer a client from a chair to the bed. The client can bear partial weight and has upper body strength. Which device should the healthcare provider use?

• A. A wheelchair
• B. A stand-assist lift
• C. A transfer belt
• D. A slide board

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A stand-assist lift is the most suitable device for transferring a client who can bear partial weight and has upper body strength. This device provides support and assistance for the client to stand up and transfer safely. Choice A, a wheelchair, is not designed for this purpose and is used for mobility. Choice C, a transfer belt, is helpful for providing stability during transfers but may not be sufficient for a client with partial weight-bearing. Choice D, a slide board, is more suitable for transferring clients who are unable to bear weight and need assistance for lateral transfers.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing and notes early decelerations. What should the nurse expect?

• A. Fetal hypoxia
• B. Abruptio placentae
• C. Post-maturity
• D. Head compression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When early decelerations are noted on the fetal monitor tracing, it indicates fetal head compression, which is typically a benign finding associated with the progress of labor. Early decelerations mirror the uterine contractions and are often not a cause for concern as they are a normal response to fetal head compression during contractions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the expected outcome of early decelerations. Fetal hypoxia, abruptio placentae, and post-maturity would present with different patterns on the fetal monitor tracing and would require different interventions.

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