ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?
- A. Ciprofloxacin
- B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- C. Oxybutynin
- D. Nitrofurantoin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who is 48 hours old and is experiencing opioid withdrawals. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Hypotonia
- B. Moderate tremors of the extremities
- C. Axillary temperature 36.1°C (96.9°F)
- D. Excessive crying
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moderate tremors of the extremities. In newborns experiencing opioid withdrawals, moderate tremors of the extremities are a common sign. Other signs of opioid withdrawal in newborns may include irritability, feeding difficulties, and gastrointestinal disturbances. Choice A, hypotonia, is not typically associated with opioid withdrawal in newborns. Choice C, an axillary temperature of 36.1°C (96.9°F), falls within the normal range for newborns and is not specifically indicative of opioid withdrawal. Choice D, excessive crying, is not a typical sign of opioid withdrawal in newborns.
3. When caring for a client prescribed azithromycin, what should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function
- B. Signs of diarrhea
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Serum electrolytes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor signs of diarrhea when a client is prescribed azithromycin. Azithromycin is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, particularly diarrhea. Monitoring for diarrhea is crucial to assess the client's response to the medication and to prevent complications such as dehydration. Monitoring liver function (choice A), blood glucose levels (choice C), and serum electrolytes (choice D) are not typically indicated specifically for clients prescribed azithromycin unless there are other specific reasons or conditions that warrant such monitoring.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following assessment findings requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Prealbumin level of 20 mg/dL
- B. Weight increase of 2 kg/day
- C. Temperature of 37.6°C
- D. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 kg/day suggests fluid overload, a possible complication of TPN. This requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as pulmonary edema. The other options are not indicative of immediate complications related to TPN. A low prealbumin level may indicate malnutrition but does not require immediate intervention. A slightly elevated temperature and blood glucose level are within normal ranges and do not warrant immediate action.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for potential complications after surgery. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor for?
- A. Decreased urine output
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Improved mobility
- D. Normal temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased urine output can indicate renal complications or dehydration, which are common post-surgical complications. Monitoring urine output is crucial for detecting early signs of kidney dysfunction or fluid imbalances. Increased appetite, improved mobility, and normal temperature are not typical signs of immediate post-surgical complications and would not be the priority for monitoring in this case.
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