ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?
- A. Ciprofloxacin
- B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- C. Oxybutynin
- D. Nitrofurantoin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.
2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?
- A. Allergy history
- B. Vital signs
- C. Renal function
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.
3. A nurse is assessing a newborn whose mother had gestational diabetes. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of hypoglycemia?
- A. Hypertonia
- B. Jitteriness
- C. Acrocyanosis
- D. Generalized petechiae
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Jitteriness is a common sign of hypoglycemia in newborns. Other signs may include irritability, poor feeding, and lethargy. Choice A, Hypertonia, is not typically associated with hypoglycemia but rather with conditions like hypocalcemia. Acrocyanosis (Choice C) is a benign condition characterized by peripheral cyanosis and is not directly linked to hypoglycemia. Generalized petechiae (Choice D) are tiny red or purple spots on the skin due to bleeding and are not specific to hypoglycemia.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with a prescription for ferrous sulfate. What instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Avoid strawberries and citrus fruits
- B. Take with fluids other than coffee or tea
- C. Take on a full stomach
- D. Double the dose if you miss a dose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take it with fluids other than coffee or tea. Coffee and tea can hinder iron absorption, so it's important to take the medication with other types of fluids. Choice A is incorrect because strawberries and citrus fruits are sources of vitamin C, which actually enhance iron absorption. Choice C is incorrect because ferrous sulfate is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Choice D is incorrect as doubling the dose of ferrous sulfate can lead to an overdose and severe side effects.
5. A client with cholecystitis has been prescribed a low-fat diet. Which of the following meal selections by the client indicates understanding of the education?
- A. Roast beef with gravy, mashed potatoes, ice cream
- B. Macaroni and cheese, salad, pudding
- C. Creamed chicken on a roll with peas
- D. Roast turkey, rice pilaf, green beans
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Roast turkey is a lean protein option suitable for a low-fat diet. Rice pilaf and green beans are also low in fat. Choices A, B, and C contain high-fat ingredients like gravy, cheese, cream, and ice cream, which are not suitable for a low-fat diet.
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