Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
• C. Oxybutynin
• D. Nitrofurantoin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.

2. A charge nurse is teaching a new nurse how to clean surfaces contaminated with blood. Which agent should the charge nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Hydrogen peroxide
• B. Chlorhexidine
• C. Isopropyl alcohol
• D. Chlorine bleach

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlorine bleach is the most appropriate agent for disinfecting surfaces contaminated with blood. It is effective in killing a wide range of pathogens, including viruses. Hydrogen peroxide (Choice A) is not as effective as chlorine bleach for bloodborne pathogen disinfection. Chlorhexidine (Choice B) and isopropyl alcohol (Choice C) are more commonly used for skin antisepsis rather than surface disinfection, making them less suitable options in this scenario.

3. When providing education on the use of insulin, what should be included?

• A. Insulin can be stored at room temperature indefinitely
• B. Monitor blood glucose levels before administration
• C. Insulin is a long-acting medication
• D. Insulin has no side effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels before administration. This step is crucial to ensure the correct dose of insulin is administered based on the current blood glucose level. Choice A is incorrect as insulin usually needs to be stored in the refrigerator and has an expiration date. Choice C is incorrect because insulin can be short-acting, rapid-acting, intermediate-acting, or long-acting. Choice D is also incorrect as insulin can have side effects such as hypoglycemia if the dose is too high.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Blood glucose 120 mg/dL
• B. pH 7.32
• C. HCO3 25 mEq/L
• D. PaCO2 48 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A pH of 7.32 indicates metabolic acidosis, which is a hallmark of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, blood glucose levels are typically elevated, bicarbonate levels are often low, and there is a compensatory respiratory response leading to a decrease in PaCO2. Option A is incorrect because a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL is within the normal range and not indicative of DKA. Option C is incorrect because an HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L is not typically seen in DKA where bicarbonate levels are usually lower. Option D is incorrect because a PaCO2 of 48 mm Hg would not be expected in DKA; it would typically be lower due to compensatory respiratory alkalosis.

5. A client at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Oxytocin
• B. Nifedipine
• C. Dinoprostone
• D. Misoprostol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nifedipine is the correct choice in this scenario. It is a calcium channel blocker that helps suppress uterine contractions and halt preterm labor. Nifedipine is commonly used to manage preterm labor in pregnant women by relaxing the smooth muscle of the uterus. Oxytocin (Choice A) is used to induce or augment labor, not to inhibit contractions. Dinoprostone (Choice C) and Misoprostol (Choice D) are prostaglandins used for cervical ripening and induction of labor, not for stopping preterm labor.

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