a nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a uti what prescription should the nurse verify with a provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. What should the nurse identify as a sign of catheter occlusion?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bladder distention is the correct sign of catheter occlusion. When a catheter is occluded, the urine cannot drain properly, leading to the buildup of urine in the bladder and subsequent distention. Frequent urination, dark urine, and increased thirst are not typical signs of catheter occlusion. Frequent urination can be a sign of conditions like urinary tract infection, dark urine may indicate dehydration or other issues, and increased thirst can be related to various factors like diabetes or medication side effects.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who repeatedly refuses meals. The nurse overhears an assistive personnel telling the client, “If you don’t eat, I’ll put restraints on your wrists and feed you.” The nurse should intervene and explain to the AP that this statement constitutes which of the following torts?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assault. Assault is the act of threatening a client with harm, such as the threat of using restraints to force-feed the client, even if no physical contact occurs. In this scenario, the statement made by the assistive personnel constitutes assault because it involves the threat of harm. Choice B, Battery, involves actual physical contact without the client's consent, which is not present in the scenario. Choice C, Malpractice, refers to professional negligence or misconduct, not a direct threat to the client. Choice D, Negligence, involves failure to provide reasonable care that results in harm, which is not applicable in this context.

4. While caring for a client receiving patient-controlled analgesia (PCA), which of the following interventions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The nurse should encourage the client to use the PCA pump before activities like dressing changes, which are likely to cause pain, to ensure effective pain management. Monitoring the client's respiratory status (Choice B) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Providing oxygen therapy (Choice C) is not a routine intervention for all clients on PCA unless specifically indicated. Ensuring the PCA pump is functioning properly (Choice D) is essential, but encouraging the client to use the PCA before painful activities takes precedence to manage pain effectively.

5. A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Heparin therapy requires monitoring of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) to ensure therapeutic levels. APTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to assess the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy. Monitoring INR levels is more relevant for assessing warfarin therapy, not heparin. Blood glucose levels are monitored for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting glucose levels. Liver function tests are used to assess liver health and are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

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