a nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a uti what prescription should the nurse verify with a provider
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.

2. A nurse is assessing a client 1 hour after birth and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus suggests uterine atony, which is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The initial intervention in this situation is to massage the fundus. Fundal massage helps the uterus contract, promoting hemostasis and preventing excessive bleeding. Taking vital signs or assessing lochia are important actions but are secondary to addressing uterine atony. Administering oxytocin IV bolus is often done after fundal massage to further enhance uterine contractions.

3. A nurse is caring for an older adult patient who is disoriented and has a history of falls. What actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct actions for the nurse to take involve ensuring patient safety and fall prevention measures. Choice B is the correct answer because instructing the patient to use the call light allows them to signal for help, applying an ambulation alarm helps detect movement, and checking on the patient hourly increases monitoring frequency. These actions are essential for preventing falls in a disoriented patient with a history of falls. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A does not provide adequate monitoring or fall prevention measures, C relies solely on assigning a sitter without utilizing technological aids, and D lacks continuous monitoring and specific fall prevention strategies.

4. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and has preeclampsia is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following is the priority assessment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Blood pressure is the priority assessment in clients with preeclampsia because hypertension is the primary symptom of the condition. Elevated blood pressure increases the risk of complications such as eclampsia and placental abruption. Assessing the blood pressure helps in monitoring the severity of the preeclampsia and guiding appropriate interventions. While monitoring the client's level of consciousness, deep tendon reflexes, and urinary output are important, they are secondary assessments in the context of preeclampsia.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.

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