Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a client about the use of lisinopril, which of the following should be included?

• A. It can cause a persistent cough
• B. It is a calcium channel blocker
• C. It is safe during pregnancy
• D. It should be taken with food

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect associated with its use is a persistent cough. This is important information that the client should be aware of. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is not a calcium channel blocker, it is an ACE inhibitor. Choice C is incorrect as lisinopril is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially during the second and third trimesters as it can cause harm to the fetus. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril is typically recommended to be taken on an empty stomach, about an hour before meals.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Decreased appetite
• C. Fatigue
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! In a client with congestive heart failure, peripheral edema, decreased appetite, and fatigue are important signs to monitor as they can indicate worsening heart failure. Peripheral edema is a common sign of fluid retention due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, decreased appetite may indicate worsening heart function, and fatigue can be a result of inadequate cardiac output. Monitoring all these signs is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one symptom may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's condition.

3. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Initiate additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques.
• B. Notify the provider that a dosage adjustment is needed.
• C. No action is needed at this time.
• D. Contact the provider to request an alternate method of pain management.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.

4. A client has a stool culture positive for C. difficile. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client in a negative pressure room
• B. Use alcohol-based hand rub after providing care
• C. Wear a face shield before entering the room
• D. Place the client in a private room

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a client with a C. difficile infection, it is essential to isolate them in a private room to prevent the spread of spores through contact with surfaces. Placing the client in a negative pressure room (Choice A) is not necessary for C. difficile. Using alcohol-based hand rub (Choice B) and wearing a face shield (Choice C) are important infection control measures but are not specific to the isolation requirements for C. difficile.

5. A nurse is teaching a client about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening of colorectal cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. “Your provider will use stool samples from your bowel movement to perform the test.”
• B. “Your provider will prescribe a stimulant laxative prior to the procedure to cleanse the bowel.”
• C. “You should begin biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at 50 years old.”
• D. “You should avoid taking corticosteroids prior to testing.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid corticosteroids and vitamin C prior to testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect because stool samples from bowel movements, not from digital rectal examinations, are used for FOBT. Choice B is incorrect because a stimulant laxative is not typically prescribed before FOBT; rather, the client is instructed to follow specific dietary restrictions. Choice C is incorrect because biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening usually begins at 50 years old, not 40.

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