HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI Practice Questions
1. A female client on the psychiatric unit tells the nurse that she feels like ending her life because she can no longer deal with her depression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Stay with the client and ensure her safety.
- B. Inform the client that she is safe in the hospital.
- C. Document the client's statements in her medical record.
- D. Encourage the client to join a group therapy session.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to stay with the client and ensure her safety. Ensuring the client's safety is the top priority when a client expresses suicidal ideation. Staying with the client can help prevent self-harm while further assessment and interventions are arranged. Choice B is incorrect because simply informing the client that she is safe in the hospital does not address the immediate need for safety. Choice C is incorrect as while documentation is important, it is not the priority when a client's safety is at risk. Choice D is also incorrect as encouraging the client to join a group therapy session is not appropriate when the client is in crisis and expressing suicidal thoughts.
2. A male client who is participating in an anger management assignment asks if he can make a leather belt in occupational therapy. The client begins pounding the leather vigorously with a mallet to imprint designs on the belt. What defense mechanism is the client using?
- A. Sublimation
- B. Suppression
- C. Regression
- D. Compensation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Sublimation. Sublimation is a defense mechanism where unacceptable impulses are redirected into socially acceptable activities, such as art or work. In this scenario, the client is channeling his anger into a creative and constructive task like making a leather belt. Choice B, Suppression, involves consciously pushing down or hiding feelings rather than expressing them through alternate means. Choice C, Regression, refers to reverting to earlier, immature behaviors when faced with stress. Choice D, Compensation, involves making up for a perceived weakness in one area by excelling in another, which is not demonstrated in the scenario provided.
3. Which information should the LPN/LVN exclude in the nursing plan of care for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
- A. The medical diagnosis of the client
- B. Individualized goals and objectives
- C. Attendance at group therapy sessions
- D. Self-care measures to improve hygiene
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because including the medical diagnosis of the client in the nursing plan is redundant as the healthcare team is already aware of the diagnosis. The nursing plan of care for a client with OCD should focus on individualized goals, objectives, attendance at group therapy sessions, and self-care measures to improve hygiene. These components directly contribute to addressing the client's needs and promoting recovery. Therefore, the medical diagnosis does not need to be included in the nursing plan as it does not actively guide the day-to-day care and interventions for the client.
4. The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4 to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?
- A. Excessive work activity.
- B. Decreased need for sleep.
- C. Medication management.
- D. Inflated self-esteem.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most important nursing problem is medication management (C) because compliance with the medication regimen will help prevent hospitalization. The client is also exhibiting signs of mania, such as excessive work activity (A), decreased need for sleep (B), and inflated self-esteem (D); however, these problems do not have the priority of medication management. Managing the medications is crucial to stabilize the client's condition and prevent potential harm associated with untreated bipolar disorder.
5. An adolescent who attempted suicide with a drug overdose arrives in the emergency department with an empty 30-tablet bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
- B. Monitor cardiac rhythm for flat T waves.
- C. Check both serum AST and ALT levels.
- D. Prepare to administer Syrup of Ipecac.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and should be administered promptly to prevent liver damage. Monitoring cardiac rhythm for flat T waves (Choice B) is not specific to acetaminophen overdose and is more related to cardiac conditions. Checking serum AST and ALT levels (Choice C) may be done later but is not the initial priority in this situation. Similarly, preparing to administer Syrup of Ipecac (Choice D) is not recommended anymore in cases of overdose as it can cause more harm.
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