Nursing Elites

1. A client with uterine cancer asks the nurse, 'Which is the most common type of cancer in women?' The nurse replies that it is breast cancer. Which type of cancer causes the most deaths in women?

• A. Breast cancer
• B. Lung cancer
• C. Brain cancer
• D. Colon and rectal cancer

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer-related deaths in women, surpassing even breast cancer. While breast cancer is more common, it is often detected early enough for effective treatment. Lung cancer, on the other hand, tends to be diagnosed at later stages, leading to higher mortality rates. Brain cancer and colon and rectal cancer are not the leading causes of cancer-related deaths in women, making them incorrect choices.

2. At the first dressing change, the PN tells the client that her mastectomy incision is healing well, but the client refuses to look at the incision and refuses to talk about it. Which response by the PN to the client's silence is best?

• A. You will feel better when you see that the incision is not as bad as you may think.
• B. It's OK if you don't want to look or talk about the mastectomy. I will be available when you're ready.
• C. Part of recovery is accepting your new body image, and you will need to look at your incision.
• D. Would you like me to call another nurse to be here while I show you the wound?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acknowledging the client's feelings and providing emotional support without pressuring them to look at the incision is important. Choice B is the best response as it respects the client's emotional readiness to confront their body image changes. The client's autonomy and emotional needs are prioritized in this response. Choice A may invalidate the client's feelings by assuming the incision is not as bad as they think, potentially dismissing their emotions. Choice C is insensitive as it imposes a particular view of recovery on the client, disregarding their current emotional state. Choice D may escalate the situation by suggesting the need for another nurse, which could make the client feel uncomfortable and pressured.

3. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

4. The practical nurse is caring for a client who had a total laryngectomy, left radical neck dissection, and tracheostomy. The client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via an enteral pump. Today the rate of feeding is increased from 50 ml/hr to 75 ml/hr. What parameter should the PN use to evaluate the client's tolerance to the rate of the feeding?

• A. Daily weight
• B. Gastric residual volumes
• C. Bowel sounds
• D. Urinary and stool output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residual volumes helps to assess how well the client is tolerating the increased feeding rate. High residuals may indicate delayed gastric emptying, which could lead to complications like aspiration. This helps in adjusting the feeding plan as necessary. Daily weight (Choice A) is not the most appropriate parameter to evaluate tolerance to feeding rate changes. Bowel sounds (Choice C) and urinary/stool output (Choice D) are important assessments but do not directly indicate tolerance to enteral feeding rate changes.

5. When caring for a child with sickle cell disease, the PN expects that the child will most likely describe which symptom when experiencing a sickle cell crisis?

• A. Decreased hemoglobin
• B. Joint pain
• C. Fatigue
• D. Infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a sickle cell crisis, a child with sickle cell disease is most likely to describe joint pain. Sickle cell disease leads to the blockage of blood flow by sickled red blood cells, causing ischemia and pain, often felt in the joints and other body parts. Fatigue (choice C) is a nonspecific symptom that can occur in various conditions but is not a characteristic symptom of a sickle cell crisis. While decreased hemoglobin (choice A) can be observed in sickle cell disease, it is not a symptom typically described by a child during a sickle cell crisis. Infection (choice D) can trigger a sickle cell crisis but is not the symptom most likely to be described by the child during the crisis.

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