HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client with uterine cancer asks the nurse, 'Which is the most common type of cancer in women?' The nurse replies that it is breast cancer. Which type of cancer causes the most deaths in women?
- A. Breast cancer
- B. Lung cancer
- C. Brain cancer
- D. Colon and rectal cancer
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer-related deaths in women, surpassing even breast cancer. While breast cancer is more common, it is often detected early enough for effective treatment. Lung cancer, on the other hand, tends to be diagnosed at later stages, leading to higher mortality rates. Brain cancer and colon and rectal cancer are not the leading causes of cancer-related deaths in women, making them incorrect choices.
2. While caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the nurse notices that the client is attempting to speak but is unable to. What should the nurse explain to the client regarding their inability to speak?
- A. Speaking is not possible because the tracheostomy tube blocks the vocal cords.
- B. The tracheostomy tube prevents air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult.
- C. The client will regain the ability to speak once the tracheostomy tube is removed.
- D. The tracheostomy tube must be replaced with a speaking valve for the client to speak.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The tracheostomy tube bypasses the vocal cords, preventing air from reaching them, which is necessary for speech. This makes speaking difficult but not impossible. Removing the tracheostomy tube does not automatically restore the ability to speak (choice C). While a speaking valve can be added later to allow speech, initially, the tracheostomy tube itself hinders air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult (choice D is incorrect). Choice A is incorrect as the tracheostomy tube does not block the vocal cords directly; instead, it prevents air from reaching them.
3. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
- B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
- C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
- D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.
4. During a clinic visit for a sore throat, a client's basal metabolic panel reveals a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L. Which intervention should the PN recommend to the client based on this finding?
- A. Increase intake of dried peaches and apricots
- B. Reduce intake of red meats
- C. Encourage use of a soft toothbrush
- D. Force fluid intake to 1500 mL daily
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend increasing the intake of dried peaches and apricots. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is considered low. Increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods can help raise the serum potassium level, preventing complications such as muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B, reducing intake of red meats, is incorrect because red meats are not specifically related to potassium levels. Choice C, encouraging the use of a soft toothbrush, is unrelated to addressing low potassium levels. Choice D, forcing fluid intake to 1500 mL daily, is not the appropriate intervention for low serum potassium; instead, increasing potassium-rich foods is more beneficial.
5. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a hypertensive crisis?
- A. Placing the patient in a supine position
- B. Administering a beta-blocker intravenously
- C. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids
- D. Applying a cold compress to the forehead
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering a beta-blocker intravenously is the correct intervention for a patient experiencing a hypertensive crisis. Beta-blockers help quickly reduce blood pressure and prevent complications such as stroke or heart attack. Placing the patient in a supine position can worsen the condition by reducing venous return and increasing the workload of the heart. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids is not recommended as it can exacerbate hypertension by increasing fluid volume. Applying a cold compress to the forehead does not address the underlying cause of the hypertensive crisis and is unlikely to provide significant benefit.
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