ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Limit your fluid intake while on this medication.
- C. Monitor your blood glucose levels regularly.
- D. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels regularly is crucial for clients with type 2 diabetes who are taking metformin. This helps assess the effectiveness of the medication in managing blood sugar levels and allows for timely adjustments in the treatment plan if needed. By monitoring blood glucose levels, the client and healthcare team can work together to achieve optimal diabetes control and prevent complications associated with uncontrolled blood sugar levels.
2. When should surgical correction of hypospadias typically occur for a newborn infant as advised by the nurse?
- A. Repair should be done within one month to prevent bladder infections.
- B. Repairs should typically be done before the child is potty-trained.
- C. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.
- D. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Surgical repair of hypospadias is recommended to be performed before the child is potty-trained to prevent complications. Early correction helps in achieving better outcomes and reduces the risk of issues related to urination and development of the genitalia.
3. After a client's neck dissection surgery resulted in damage to the superior laryngeal nerve, what area of assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- A. The client's swallowing ability
- B. The client's ability to speak
- C. The client's management of secretions
- D. The client's airway patency
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Damage to the superior laryngeal nerve can lead to swallowing difficulties due to impaired laryngeal function. As a result, assessing the client's swallowing ability is crucial to prevent aspiration and ensure proper nutrition and hydration.
4. What action should the healthcare provider take to reduce the risk of vesicant extravasation in a client receiving intravenous chemotherapy?
- A. Administer an antiemetic before starting the chemotherapy.
- B. Instruct the client to drink plenty of fluids during the treatment.
- C. Keep the head of the bed elevated until the treatment is completed.
- D. Monitor the client's intravenous site hourly during the treatment.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring the intravenous site hourly is essential to identify early signs of extravasation, such as swelling or pain, which can help prevent tissue damage. Prompt detection allows for immediate intervention, minimizing the risk of serious complications associated with vesicant extravasation.
5. A patient with glaucoma is prescribed timolol eye drops. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Reduce intraocular pressure
- B. Dilate the pupils
- C. Constrict the pupils
- D. Enhance tear production
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Timolol eye drops are prescribed to reduce intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma. By decreasing the pressure within the eye, timolol helps prevent damage to the optic nerve, which is crucial in managing glaucoma and preserving vision. Dilating or constricting the pupils or enhancing tear production are not the primary actions of timolol eye drops.
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