Nursing Elites

1. A patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

• A. Take an extra dose if you miss one.
• B. Avoid high-potassium foods.
• C. Report any visual disturbances.
• D. Stop taking the medication if your pulse is normal.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report any visual disturbances.' Patients taking digoxin should be instructed to report any visual disturbances, as this can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. Visual disturbances like changes in color vision, blurred vision, or seeing halos around lights can indicate an overdose of digoxin. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Instructing a patient to take an extra dose if they miss one can lead to overdose. Avoiding high-potassium foods is important for patients on potassium-sparing diuretics, not digoxin. Stopping the medication if the pulse is normal is incorrect, as the pulse rate alone is not an indicator of digoxin effectiveness or toxicity.

2. A 70-year-old man presents with weight loss, jaundice, and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Gallstones
• B. Hepatitis
• C. Pancreatic cancer
• D. Primary biliary cirrhosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The presentation of a 70-year-old man with weight loss, jaundice, a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels is highly suggestive of pancreatic cancer. This clinical scenario, known as Courvoisier's sign, points towards a pancreatic malignancy due to biliary obstruction. Gallstones could cause similar symptoms but would typically not present with a palpable mass. Hepatitis usually does not present with a palpable mass and would have different laboratory findings. Primary biliary cirrhosis typically presents differently with chronic cholestasis without the presence of a palpable mass or a pancreatic lesion.

3. The patient described in the preceding questions has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?

• A. She is at high risk for reinfection with H. pylori.
• B. A positive serum IgG indicates that eradication of H. pylori was unsuccessful.
• C. The urease breath test is an ideal test to document failure of eradication.
• D. Dyspepsia usually improves with H. pylori eradication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. A positive serum IgG may persist indefinitely and cannot alone determine the failure of eradication. However, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been used to confirm treatment success. The urease breath test is recommended to assess the failure of eradication as it can detect the presence of H. pylori in the stomach, indicating treatment failure if positive.

4. A client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes is preparing for discharge. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take my insulin shots only when my blood sugar is high
• B. I need to follow a balanced diet and exercise regularly
• C. I should monitor my blood sugar levels regularly
• D. I need to take my medication as prescribed by my doctor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In type 2 diabetes, insulin therapy is typically not the first-line treatment. Patients should follow their prescribed treatment plan, which may or may not include insulin. Taking insulin shots only when blood sugar is high can lead to uncontrolled glucose levels and complications. It is important to adhere to the prescribed medication regimen to manage diabetes effectively.

5. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

• A. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone
• B. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and misoprostol
• C. Prescribe celecoxib
• D. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and sucralfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

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