ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Tardive dyskinesia.
- B. Orthostatic hypotension.
- C. Photosensitivity.
- D. Hyperglycemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tardive dyskinesia. Haloperidol (Haldol) is an antipsychotic medication that can lead to tardive dyskinesia, a side effect characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the face and body. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial to provide timely interventions and prevent further complications.
2. A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient is prescribed lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, the nurse should monitor for hyperkalemia. Lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia by decreasing aldosterone secretion, which leads to potassium retention in the body. Hyperkalemia is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be closely monitored, as it can have serious consequences such as affecting cardiac function.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take your pulse before each dose and hold the medication if your pulse is below 60 beats per minute.
- B. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
- C. Take the medication with a high-fiber meal to enhance absorption.
- D. Skip a dose if you feel dizzy or lightheaded.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed digoxin is to take their pulse before each dose and hold the medication if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute. This is crucial to prevent digoxin toxicity, as digoxin can cause adverse effects when the pulse rate is too low. Monitoring the pulse regularly ensures safety and appropriate management of the medication.
4. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed a fentanyl patch. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?
- A. Apply the patch to a different site each time.
- B. Change the patch every 72 hours.
- C. Avoid using additional heating pads over the patch.
- D. Remove the patch before showering.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to provide to a patient prescribed a fentanyl patch is to change the patch every 72 hours. This ensures consistent pain control and prevents complications. It is crucial to rotate the application sites to prevent skin irritation or reactions. Using additional heating pads over the patch should be avoided as it can increase the absorption of the medication, leading to overdose or adverse effects. Removing the patch before showering is not necessary as long as the patch is securely in place.
5. Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client has developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?
- A. Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy.
- B. Total parenteral nutrition to be infused at 125 ml/hour.
- C. Nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction.
- D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) intermittent piggyback.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with dysphagia and gastrointestinal symptoms such as hypoactive bowel sounds and a firm, distended abdomen, continuous tube feeding might exacerbate the symptoms. This can lead to complications and should be questioned by the nurse.
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