Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is receiving isoniazid (INH). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hepatotoxicity
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Isoniazid (INH) can lead to hepatotoxicity, necessitating the monitoring of liver function tests. This adverse effect is characterized by liver damage and dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because isoniazid is not typically associated with hyperglycemia, hypotension, or hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing for signs and symptoms of hepatotoxicity in a client receiving isoniazid.

2. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. The nurse knows that the client's risk for withdrawal symptoms is greatest within:

• A. 2-4 hours
• B. 4-6 hours
• C. 6-12 hours
• D. 12-24 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 12-24 hours. Withdrawal symptoms typically begin within 12-24 hours after the last drink. This period is when the client is at the highest risk for experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the typical timeline for alcohol withdrawal symptoms to manifest. Symptoms usually peak within the first 24 to 48 hours after the last drink, making the 12-24 hour window critical for monitoring and managing any potential withdrawal complications.

3. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperglycemia. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) contains a high glucose content, which can lead to elevated blood sugar levels, resulting in hyperglycemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial in clients receiving TPN to prevent complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because TPN is more likely to cause hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, or hyponatremia.

4. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

• A. Auditory gurgling
• B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
• C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
• D. Frequent dry coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

5. You are teaching a client about the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) planned for post-operative care. Which statement indicates further teaching may be needed by the client?

• A. ''I will be receiving continuous doses of medication.''
• B. ''I should call the nurse before I take additional doses.''
• C. ''I will call for assistance if my pain is not relieved.''
• D. ''The machine will prevent an overdose.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: PCA allows patients to self-administer pain medication within prescribed limits, without the need to call the nurse before taking an additional dose. Choice B suggests a misunderstanding of how PCA works, as the patient should be educated that they can self-administer doses within the safety parameters set by the healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate proper understanding of PCA, hence are not indicative of needing further teaching.

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