Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is receiving isoniazid (INH). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hepatotoxicity
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Isoniazid (INH) can lead to hepatotoxicity, necessitating the monitoring of liver function tests. This adverse effect is characterized by liver damage and dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because isoniazid is not typically associated with hyperglycemia, hypotension, or hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing for signs and symptoms of hepatotoxicity in a client receiving isoniazid.

2. In order to be effective as an occupational health nurse, you should be equipped with knowledge and skills in which of the following:

• A. public health science
• B. research process
• C. interviewing and counseling
• D. oral and written communication

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To be effective as an occupational health nurse, having knowledge and skills in public health science, the research process, interviewing and counseling, and oral and written communication are all important. However, communication skills, both oral and written, are crucial for conveying information, educating employees, documenting findings, and collaborating with other healthcare professionals. While public health science, research process, interviewing, and counseling are essential, oral and written communication is fundamental for effective communication and coordination in the workplace, making it the most critical skill for an occupational health nurse.

3. A client with a peptic ulcer is scheduled for a vagotomy and pyloroplasty. The nurse explains that the purpose of this surgery is to:

• A. Increase acid secretion
• B. Reduce acid secretion
• C. Promote gastric emptying
• D. Remove the ulcerated area

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Reduce acid secretion." Vagotomy is performed to reduce acid secretion by cutting the vagus nerve, which stimulates acid production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A vagotomy does not increase acid secretion, promote gastric emptying, or remove the ulcerated area. It specifically aims to decrease acid production to help in the healing of peptic ulcers.

4. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the Center for Disease Control (CDC)?

• A. 13 to 18 years of age.
• B. 11 to 12 years of age.
• C. 18 to 24 months of age.
• D. 4 to 6 years of age.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 to 6 years of age. The CDC recommends the MMR booster for children in this age group. Choice A (13 to 18 years of age) is incorrect as it is not the recommended age range for the MMR booster. Choice B (11 to 12 years of age) is also incorrect as it does not align with the CDC guidelines for the MMR booster. Choice C (18 to 24 months of age) is not the correct age range for the MMR booster according to CDC recommendations.

5. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. The nurse knows that the client's risk for withdrawal symptoms is greatest within:

• A. 2-4 hours
• B. 4-6 hours
• C. 6-12 hours
• D. 12-24 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 12-24 hours. Withdrawal symptoms typically begin within 12-24 hours after the last drink. This period is when the client is at the highest risk for experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the typical timeline for alcohol withdrawal symptoms to manifest. Symptoms usually peak within the first 24 to 48 hours after the last drink, making the 12-24 hour window critical for monitoring and managing any potential withdrawal complications.

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