Nursing Elites

1. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Hypertension
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

2. A community health nurse is planning to implement an outreach program for a community group. Which criteria should the nurse clarify about the program when examining sources for funding?

• A. Focuses on addressing multiple health problems or concerns.
• B. Identifies populations and individuals in need of healthcare services.
• C. Evaluates differences in health services and health status among populations.
• D. Provides healthcare services to community members in local factories, schools, and churches.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Identifying populations and individuals in need of healthcare services is essential when seeking funding for an outreach program. This criterion helps demonstrate the relevance and impact of the program on specific groups requiring healthcare services. Choice A is incorrect because while addressing multiple health problems is important, identifying the target population in need of services is more critical for funding considerations. Choice C is incorrect as evaluating variations in health services and status, though valuable, is not directly related to securing funding. Choice D is incorrect as offering services in various community locations is a component of the program's implementation, not a criterion for funding.

3. Which of the following measures the proportion of the population that exhibits a particular disease at a particular time and includes both new and old cases?

• A. proportionate morbidity rate
• B. case fatality rate
• C. incidence ratio
• D. prevalence ratio

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, prevalence ratio. Prevalence ratio measures the proportion of the population with a particular disease at a specific time, including both new and existing cases. Choice A, proportionate morbidity rate, is not a standard term and might confuse students. Choice B, case fatality rate, measures the proportion of deaths from a specific disease compared to the total number of cases but does not include both new and old cases. Choice C, incidence ratio, measures the rate of new cases of a disease in a specific population over a defined period, not considering existing cases.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. White blood cell count (WBC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.

5. Which of these tests with frequency would the nurse expect to monitor for the evaluation of clients with poor glycemic control in persons aged 18 and older?

• A. A glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) should be performed during an initial assessment and during follow-up assessments, which should occur at no longer than 3-month intervals
• B. A glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at least twice a year
• C. A fasting glucose and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 3-month intervals after the initial assessment
• D. A glucose tolerance test, a fasting glucose, and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 6-month intervals after the initial assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) testing every 3 months is recommended for clients with poor glycemic control to monitor their average blood sugar levels and adjust treatment as necessary. Choice A is correct as it aligns with the guideline of performing A1c testing every 3 months. Choice B is incorrect because testing at least twice a year may not provide adequate monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions testing at 3-month intervals without specifying the importance of A1c testing. Choice D is incorrect as it includes unnecessary tests like glucose tolerance test and does not emphasize the importance of more frequent A1c monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control.

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