a client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine mestinon the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects
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Community Health HESI Test Bank

1. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

2. When assisting a family who fails to take action during a sick member despite suggestions, you will:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When helping a family decide on actions to take, it is essential to identify the courses of action available to them and the resources needed for each. This empowers the family to make informed decisions based on their specific situation. Explaining the consequences of inaction (Choice A) may be necessary but does not provide a range of options. Discussing the consequences of each course of action (Choice C) is important but does not actively guide the family on the available actions. Influencing the family (Choice D) to act based on personal judgment undermines their autonomy and may not lead to the best outcome.

3. Which of the following activities is an example of tertiary prevention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, physical therapy. Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and treatment to prevent complications from a disease or injury. Physical therapy falls under this category as it helps individuals recover and improve functionality after an illness or injury. Choices A, B, and C are not examples of tertiary prevention. Health education (choice A) is more aligned with primary prevention by promoting healthy behaviors to prevent disease onset. Regular exercise (choice B) can be categorized under both primary and secondary prevention as it aims to prevent disease development and detect conditions early. Screening tests (choice C) are part of secondary prevention as they aim to detect diseases at an early stage for prompt treatment.

4. A public health nurse can say that she is beginning to achieve her goal of more optimal health for her community when:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Achieving optimal health for a community involves multiple factors and indicators. For a public health nurse to begin achieving this goal, it is essential that all relevant indicators are present, not just one or a few. While choices A, B, and D are important components of promoting community health, optimal health for a community encompasses a comprehensive approach where all indicators are considered and addressed. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

5. Environmental sanitation is the primary problem in community Y. As a stranger to the health unit, one of the major strategies in your plan is the improvement of the environmental health conditions of the community. To indicate this, which of the following would you do?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, requesting mayors to create a task force is the most effective strategy to improve environmental health conditions in the community. Engaging with local government officials ensures the allocation of resources, coordination of efforts, and the implementation of sustainable solutions. While meeting with youth officials, parents' group leaders, religious and educational leaders are important, involving mayors in creating a task force will lead to broader community involvement and support. Informing local announcers about the project, although helpful for awareness, is not as impactful as engaging with local authorities for tangible change.

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