HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank
1. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Constipation
- B. Hypertension
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.
2. Which of the following statements can motivate a couple to practice family planning?
- A. Family planning helps families improve their standard of living.
- B. Family planning reduces or eliminates fear of unwanted pregnancies.
- C. Family planning affords family members time to study or pursue personal interests.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the listed statements provide valid reasons to motivate couples to practice family planning. Option A highlights how family planning can lead to an improvement in the standard of living by allowing families to better manage their resources. Option B emphasizes the importance of family planning in reducing or eliminating the fear of unwanted pregnancies, which can have significant emotional and financial implications for couples. Option C points out that family planning can also afford family members time to focus on personal development, such as studying or pursuing personal interests, without the added responsibilities of unplanned pregnancies. Therefore, all these factors combined can serve as strong motivators for couples to consider and practice family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them individually provides a valid reason to motivate couples, making the comprehensive answer D the most appropriate.
3. The nurse is assigned to a newly delivered woman with HIV/AIDS. The student asks the nurse about how it is determined that a person has AIDS other than a positive HIV test. The nurse responds:
- A. The complaints of at least 3 common findings.
- B. The absence of any opportunistic infection.
- C. CD4 lymphocyte count is less than 200.
- D. Developmental delays in children.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm³ is a diagnostic criterion for AIDS. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is vague and does not reflect the diagnostic criteria for AIDS. Choice B is not accurate, as the presence of opportunistic infections, not their absence, is indicative of AIDS. Choice D is unrelated to the diagnosis of AIDS in adults.
4. During which phase of the community organizing process are the leaders or groups given training to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs?
- A. Sustenance and strengthening phase
- B. Pre-entry phase
- C. Organizing-building phase
- D. Entry phase
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the organizing-building phase. This phase involves providing training to leaders and groups to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs. Choice A, the sustenance and strengthening phase, focuses more on maintaining and enhancing existing programs rather than training. Choice B, the pre-entry phase, occurs before actual organizing and training take place. Choice D, the entry phase, is about initiating the community organizing process, not specifically about training leaders and groups.
5. The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most effective in removing respiratory secretions?
- A. Administration of cough suppressants
- B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
- C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
- D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day is the most effective in removing respiratory secretions in a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps thin secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Administration of cough suppressants (Choice A) may hinder the removal of secretions by suppressing the cough reflex. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the removal of respiratory secretions. Performing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) is beneficial for mobilizing secretions but may not be as effective as increasing fluid intake in thinning and facilitating the removal of secretions.
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