a client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine mestinon the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects
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Nursing Elites

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Community Health HESI Test Bank

1. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

2. A client with peptic ulcer disease is receiving ranitidine (Zantac). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diarrhea. Ranitidine, which is used to treat peptic ulcer disease, can lead to gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhea. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension and hypotension are not common side effects of ranitidine. Constipation is also not a typical side effect associated with ranitidine use.

3. What influences health status?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Health status is influenced by a combination of lifestyle choices, community resources, health technology like diagnostic machines, and environmental conditions. Each of these factors plays a role in determining an individual's overall health. Choice A is correct as lifestyle choices (such as diet, exercise, and smoking habits) and access to community resources (like healthcare facilities, support groups, and recreational spaces) are important determinants of health. Choice B is correct as the availability of health technology, including diagnostic machines, can impact early detection and treatment of health conditions. Choice C is correct as exposure to toxic environmental conditions (such as pollution, contaminated water, or hazardous waste) can have adverse effects on health. Therefore, the correct answer is D because all of these factors collectively influence health status.

4. When assessing a newborn infant with low set ears, short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, and an indistinct philtrum, a priority maternal assessment by the nurse should be to ask about

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol use during pregnancy. The physical features mentioned are indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome, a condition caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. It is crucial for the nurse to inquire about alcohol use as it can help in diagnosing and managing the infant's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with the physical findings described in the newborn, which specifically point towards a potential history of alcohol exposure during pregnancy.

5. When the nurse identifies what appears to be ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor of a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction, the first action the nurse should perform is to

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when identifying what appears to be ventricular tachycardia in a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction is to assess the client's airway, breathing, and circulation. This step is crucial to determine the client's stability and the need for immediate intervention. Beginning cardiopulmonary resuscitation or preparing for immediate defibrillation without first assessing the airway, breathing, and circulation could delay potentially life-saving interventions. Notifying the 'Code' team and healthcare provider should come after ensuring the client's immediate needs are addressed.

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