Nursing Elites

1. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Hypertension
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

2. Which statement specifically describes occupational health nursing?

• A. Involves prevention, recognition, and treatment of injury and illness
• B. All of these
• C. The application of nursing principles in conserving the health of workers in all occupations
• D. Requires special skills in the field of health, education, and counseling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Occupational health nursing involves all aspects mentioned in the statements: prevention, recognition, treatment of injury and illness, application of nursing principles in conserving workers' health, and the requirement of special skills in health, education, and counseling. Choice A focuses on prevention, recognition, and treatment but does not encompass all aspects of occupational health nursing. Choice C only mentions the application of nursing principles without including prevention and treatment. Choice D specifically highlights the need for special skills but does not cover all the aspects of occupational health nursing.

3. When planning the care for a young adult client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, which of these concerns should the nurse determine to be the priority for long term mobility?

• A. Digestive problems
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Electrolyte imbalance
• D. Blood disorders

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amenorrhea. Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstruation, is a common long-term consequence of anorexia nervosa due to low body weight and hormonal imbalances. Addressing amenorrhea is crucial for the patient's overall health and reproductive potential. Choice A, Digestive problems, may also be a concern in anorexia nervosa, but in terms of long-term mobility, amenorrhea takes priority because of its impact on hormonal balance and bone health. Choice C, Electrolyte imbalance, is important to address in anorexia nervosa due to potential cardiac complications, but it is not directly linked to long-term mobility concerns. Choice D, Blood disorders, while they can occur in anorexia nervosa, are not as directly related to long-term mobility as amenorrhea, which can significantly affect bone health and mobility in the future.

4. What title should be given to this role in the occupational health nurse job description? A registered nurse who teaches and prepares nursing students to function as expert clinicians/practitioners, administrators, educators, researchers, or consultants at the work site.

• A. researcher
• B. case manager
• C. health educator
• D. health promotion specialist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct title for the role described in the job description is a health educator. A health educator is responsible for teaching and preparing nursing students for various professional roles. Choice A, researcher, is incorrect because the main focus in the job description is on teaching and preparing students, not conducting research. Choice B, case manager, does not align with the role of teaching and preparing nursing students. Choice D, health promotion specialist, is also not the best fit as the primary focus in the job description is on education and preparation, rather than promoting health within a specific population.

5. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of regular health screenings, this activity falls under which level of prevention?

• A. Primary prevention
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Quaternary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease early to prevent complications. Teaching about the importance of regular health screenings helps in early detection and intervention, which aligns with the goals of secondary prevention. Choice A, Primary prevention, involves actions to prevent the onset of a health condition. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing conditions to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid unnecessary interventions, over-medicalization, and the consequences of unnecessary treatment.

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