Nursing Elites

1. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Hypertension
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

2. During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?

• A. Pulse oximetry reading of 89%
• B. Crackles at the base of the lungs on auscultation
• C. Rapid shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes
• D. Excessive thirst with a dry cracked tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.

3. The nurse is teaching a community group about risks of cardiovascular disease. Several clients ask the nurse to determine their risk. Which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease?

• A. A male with a serum cholesterol level of 199 mg/dl.
• B. A female with a serum cholesterol level of 201 mg/dl.
• C. A male with a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level of 200 mg/dl.
• D. A female with a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level of 160 mg/dl.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A male with a high LDL level (200 mg/dl) has a significant risk for cardiovascular disease. High levels of LDL cholesterol are associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and heart disease. Choices A, B, and D have serum cholesterol levels that are slightly elevated but are not as specific or directly linked to cardiovascular risk as high LDL levels. Therefore, the client with the high LDL level is at the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease.

4. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child with a greenstick fracture. In explaining this type of fracture to the parents, the best response by the nurse should be that

• A. A child's bone is more flexible and can be bent 45 degrees before breaking
• B. Bones of children are more porous than adults and often have incomplete breaks
• C. Compression of porous bones produces a buckle or torus type break
• D. Bone fragments often remain attached by a periosteal hinge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Greenstick fractures are common in children because their bones are softer and more porous than adult bones, leading to incomplete breaks when force is applied. Choice A is incorrect as greenstick fractures are not due to bone flexibility but rather the porous nature of children's bones. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a buckle or torus type break, which is not characteristic of a greenstick fracture. Choice D is incorrect as greenstick fractures do not involve bone fragments remaining attached by a periosteal hinge.

5. The school nurse is called to the playground for an episode of mouth trauma. The nurse finds that the front tooth of a 9-year-old child has been avulsed (knocked out). After recovering the tooth, the initial response should be to

• A. Rinse the tooth in water before placing it in the socket
• B. Place the tooth in a clean plastic bag for transport to the dentist
• C. Hold the tooth by the roots until reaching the emergency room
• D. Ask the child to replace the tooth even if the bleeding continues

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct immediate action after recovering an avulsed tooth is to rinse it with water and place it back in the socket. This helps preserve the tooth and increases the chances of successful re-implantation. Placing the tooth in a clean plastic bag for transport to the dentist (choice B) is not ideal as immediate re-implantation is preferred. Holding the tooth by the roots until reaching the emergency room (choice C) can further damage the tooth. Asking the child to replace the tooth even if bleeding continues (choice D) is incorrect and may lead to improper re-implantation.

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