Nursing Elites

1. A client with osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

• A. Take this medication at the same time each day.
• B. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take this medication immediately after a meal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed raloxifene, a medication used for osteoporosis, is to take it at the same time each day. This consistency helps maintain steady blood levels of the medication, enhancing its effectiveness in managing the condition. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not require a full glass of water for administration. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene should not be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene should not be taken immediately after a meal.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed adalimumab. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Avoid live vaccines while taking this medication.
• B. Take this medication with food to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
• C. Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider.
• D. Avoid sunlight exposure while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed adalimumab, which is an immunosuppressant medication, is to avoid live vaccines. Adalimumab can weaken the immune system, making live vaccines potentially harmful. It is essential to educate the client on this to prevent complications and ensure the effectiveness of the treatment.

3. When should a client receiving insulin lispro administer this medication?

• A. Before meals
• B. After meals
• C. At bedtime
• D. Before sleep

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered shortly before meals. This timing helps to synchronize the peak action of insulin with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating, effectively managing blood glucose levels in the body.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed empagliflozin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Genital infections
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Genital infections. Empagliflozin, a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes, is associated with an increased risk of genital infections. This is due to its mechanism of action, which involves promoting the excretion of glucose through urine, creating a more favorable environment for fungal or bacterial growth in the genital area. Choices B and C, hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, are less likely adverse effects of empagliflozin. Empagliflozin actually carries a low risk of causing hypoglycemia since it works independently of insulin. Nausea (Choice D) is not a commonly reported adverse effect of empagliflozin, making it an incorrect choice in this scenario.

5. A client with a history of angina is prescribed amlodipine. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor the client for which adverse effect?

• A. Headache
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, commonly causes peripheral edema as an adverse effect. This is due to its vasodilation effects on blood vessels, leading to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to assess the client's response to amlodipine and ensure timely intervention if needed.

Similar Questions