Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a side effect. It is essential for the nurse to monitor the client for this adverse reaction as it may lead to discontinuation of the medication. Dizziness, hyperkalemia, and hyponatremia are not typically associated with lisinopril use. Dizziness is more commonly seen with antihypertensives that cause orthostatic hypotension. Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia are not usually linked to lisinopril use.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed dulaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Pancreatitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nausea.' Dulaglutide, a medication commonly used in the management of type 2 diabetes, can lead to gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are potential concerns in diabetes management, they are not typically associated with dulaglutide use. Pancreatitis is a serious adverse effect of some diabetes medications, but it is not a common side effect of dulaglutide.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed sotalol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Headache
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sotalol, a medication used for atrial fibrillation, is known to cause bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect as sotalol is more likely to cause bradycardia. Choice C, Headache, and Choice D, Hyperglycemia, are unrelated side effects of sotalol and are not commonly associated with this medication.

4. When should a glucagon emergency kit be used for a client with Type 1 diabetes?

• A. During episodes of hypoglycemia
• B. At the onset of signs of diabetic ketoacidosis
• C. Before meals to prevent hyperglycemia
• D. When signs of severe hypoglycemia occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A glucagon emergency kit is used when signs of severe hypoglycemia occur in a client with Type 1 diabetes. Glucagon helps raise blood glucose levels in cases of severe hypoglycemia when the individual is unable to take oral glucose. It is crucial to administer glucagon promptly to prevent serious complications associated with low blood sugar levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a glucagon emergency kit is specifically indicated for severe hypoglycemia, not for general episodes of hypoglycemia, diabetic ketoacidosis, or prevention of hyperglycemia.

5. A client with asthma is receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy. The nurse includes a risk for impaired skin integrity on the client's problem list. What is the rationale for including this problem?

• A. Abnormal fat deposits impair circulation
• B. Frequent diarrhea can lead to skin issues
• C. Thinned skin bruises easily
• D. Decreased serum glucose prolongs healing time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glucocorticoids can cause skin thinning, which increases the likelihood of bruising. Thinning of the skin due to glucocorticoid therapy makes it more fragile and prone to injury, such as bruising, even with minimal trauma. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because abnormal fat deposits impairing circulation, frequent diarrhea causing skin issues, and decreased serum glucose prolonging healing time are not direct effects of glucocorticoid therapy on skin integrity.

Similar Questions