Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a side effect. It is essential for the nurse to monitor the client for this adverse reaction as it may lead to discontinuation of the medication. Dizziness, hyperkalemia, and hyponatremia are not typically associated with lisinopril use. Dizziness is more commonly seen with antihypertensives that cause orthostatic hypotension. Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia are not usually linked to lisinopril use.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. The practical nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring for hypokalemia is essential because it can cause various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the practical nurse should closely watch for signs and symptoms of low potassium levels in clients taking hydrochlorothiazide. Incorrect Rationale for Other Choices: A. Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use; instead, it is more commonly linked to medications like ACE inhibitors or potassium-sparing diuretics. C. Hypernatremia is unlikely with hydrochlorothiazide use as it tends to cause sodium loss. D. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with conditions where there is excessive water intake or syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), rather than with hydrochlorothiazide use.

3. The practical nurse administered carbidopa-levodopa to a client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Which outcome by the client would indicate a therapeutic response?

• A. Decreased blood pressure
• B. Lessening of tremors
• C. Increased salivation
• D. Increased attention span

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lessening of tremors. Carbidopa-levodopa increases the amount of levodopa to the CNS, providing more dopamine to the brain. Increased dopamine levels help alleviate Parkinson's symptoms such as tremors, involuntary movements, and gait abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as carbidopa-levodopa is not expected to have a direct effect on blood pressure, salivation, or attention span in the context of treating Parkinson's disease.

4. A client with a history of angina is prescribed amlodipine. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor the client for which adverse effect?

• A. Headache
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, commonly causes peripheral edema as an adverse effect. This is due to its vasodilation effects on blood vessels, leading to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to assess the client's response to amlodipine and ensure timely intervention if needed.

5. A female client who started chemotherapy three days ago for cancer of the breast calls the clinic reporting that she is so upset she cannot sleep. The client has several PRN medications available. Which drug should the nurse instruct her to take?

• A. Ondansetron 8mgPO no
• B. Lorazepam 2mg PO bedtime
• C. Oxycodone, acetylsalicylic acid one tablet q4 hours PRN
• D. Acetaminophen, diphenhydramine 2 capsules bedtime

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen and diphenhydramine help with sleep without severe side effects.

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