Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which food should the LPN/LVN recommend the client avoid?

• A. Fresh fruits
• B. Grilled chicken
• C. Whole grain bread
• D. Canned soup

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, canned soup. Canned soup is often high in sodium, which contradicts the low-sodium diet prescribed for hypertension. Fresh fruits (A) are generally low in sodium and are a healthy choice. Grilled chicken (B) is a lean protein option that is suitable for a low-sodium diet. Whole grain bread (C) is also a good choice as it is not typically high in sodium. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should recommend avoiding canned soup to adhere to the low-sodium dietary restrictions.

2. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

• A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Morphine sulfate
• C. Meperidine (Demerol)
• D. Promethazine (Phenergan)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to insert an IV catheter into a client's arm before starting IV fluid therapy. Which of the following interventions should the provider implement to prevent infection?

• A. Thread the IV catheter so that the hub rests at the insertion site
• B. Shave excess hair from around the insertion site
• C. Cleanse the site with hydrogen peroxide before IV catheter insertion
• D. Palpate the site carefully just before inserting the IV catheter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inserting the IV catheter so that the hub rests at the insertion site reduces the risk of contamination along the length of the catheter. This technique helps prevent introducing microbes into the bloodstream during the catheter insertion process. Shaving excess hair is unnecessary and can increase the risk of skin irritation and infection. Cleansing the site with hydrogen peroxide is outdated as it can cause tissue damage and delay wound healing. Palpating the site just before insertion can introduce bacteria from the skin surface into the insertion site, increasing the risk of infection.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?

• A. Furosemide (Lasix)
• B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Albuterol (Proventil)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.

5. An 80-year-old client admitted with a diagnosis of a possible cerebral vascular accident has had a blood pressure ranging from 180/110 to 160/100 over the past 2 hours. The nurse has also noted increased lethargy. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?

• A. Slurred speech
• B. Incontinence
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Rapid pulse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Slurred speech is a classic sign of a worsening stroke, suggesting a potential blockage or hemorrhage affecting speech centers in the brain. Prompt reporting of this symptom to the healthcare provider is crucial for immediate evaluation and intervention. While incontinence (Choice B) is important to monitor, it is not considered an immediate priority over slurred speech in this context. Muscle weakness (Choice C) and rapid pulse (Choice D) are also relevant in stroke assessment, but slurred speech takes precedence due to its strong association with neurological deficits in the setting of a possible cerebral vascular accident.

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