Nursing Elites

1. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The client asks how long it will take for the medication to start working. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. You should start feeling better within a few days.
• B. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you notice an improvement.
• C. Buspirone works immediately to reduce anxiety symptoms.
• D. You will need to take this medication for at least a year.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Buspirone typically takes 2 to 4 weeks to become fully effective. It is essential to inform the client that it may take some time before they notice an improvement. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone does not work immediately. Choice C is also incorrect as buspirone does not provide immediate relief. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests a longer duration of treatment than necessary.

2. An elderly female client with advanced dementia is admitted to the hospital with a fractured hip. The client repeatedly tells the staff, 'Take me home. I want my Mommy.' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?

• A. Orient the client to the time, place, and person.
• B. Tell the client that the nurse is there and will help her.
• C. Remind the client that her mother is no longer living.
• D. Explain the seriousness of her injury and need for hospitalization.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the client that the nurse is there and will help her. Providing reassurance and presence is more therapeutic in dealing with a client who has advanced dementia and is expressing a desire to go home and be with her mother. Option A might not be effective as continuously orienting the client may not alleviate her distress. Option C, reminding the client that her mother is no longer living, can be distressing and may not be appropriate in this situation. Option D, explaining the seriousness of the injury and need for hospitalization, is not the best response as it does not address the client's emotional needs at that moment.

3. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

• A. It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.
• B. We may need to switch to a different medication.
• C. You should feel better by now, let's discuss this with your doctor.
• D. Maybe you are not taking the medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

4. A newly admitted client describes her mission in life as one of saving her son by eliminating the 'provocative sluts' of the world. There are several attractive young women on the unit. What should the LPN/LVN do first?

• A. Ask the client for her definition of 'provocative sluts'
• B. Ask the young female clients on the unit to dress less provocatively
• C. Ask the client to discuss her concerns in the next group session
• D. Ask the client to inform the staff if she has negative thoughts about other clients

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the LPN/LVN to take first is to ask the client to inform the staff if she has negative thoughts about other clients. This approach is crucial as it helps in monitoring the client's thoughts and behaviors, potentially preventing any harmful actions towards others on the unit. Asking for the client's definition of 'provocative sluts' (Choice A) may not address the immediate concern of monitoring the client's harmful thoughts. Asking the young female clients to dress less provocatively (Choice B) is inappropriate and victim-blaming. Asking the client to discuss her concerns in the next group session (Choice C) may not be effective in addressing the potential harm the client's thoughts could pose to others on the unit.

5. A homeless person who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is admitted to the mental health unit. Which laboratory finding obtained on admission is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone level
• B. Elevated liver function profile
• C. Increased white blood cell count
• D. Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone level. Hyperthyroidism causes an increased level of serum thyroid hormones (T3 and T4), which inhibit the release of TSH. In this case, a decreased TSH level can indicate hyperthyroidism, which can present with manic behavior. Elevated liver function profile (B) is not directly related to the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Increased white blood cell count (C) typically indicates an infection or inflammation, not directly related to the manic phase. Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels (D) may suggest anemia but are not as crucial in the context of a manic phase of bipolar disorder.

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