ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed erythropoietin (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output.
- B. Improved hemoglobin levels.
- C. Decreased blood pressure.
- D. Stable potassium levels.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improved hemoglobin levels. Erythropoietin (Epogen) stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels in clients with chronic renal failure. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy in managing anemia associated with chronic renal failure. While increased urine output, decreased blood pressure, and stable potassium levels are important parameters to monitor in clients with renal failure, they are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy.
2. Which of the following statements is true about ischemic colitis?
- A. Typically requires colonic resection
- B. Affects the watershed areas of the colon, namely, the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum
- C. Is only seen in the elderly
- D. Requires colonoscopic intervention
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ischemic colitis most often results from low-flow states associated with hypotension or poor perfusion. As a result, the vascular watershed areas of the colon, including the splenic flexure, right colon, and rectum, are at highest risk of ischemic injury. Therefore, option B is correct as it accurately identifies the areas commonly affected by ischemic colitis.
3. What instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for a patient with hypothyroidism prescribed levothyroxine?
- A. Take the medication with meals.
- B. Take the medication in the morning on an empty stomach.
- C. Discontinue the medication if you feel better.
- D. Double the dose if a dose is missed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient with hypothyroidism prescribed levothyroxine is to take the medication in the morning on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Taking it with meals can interfere with absorption. Patients should not discontinue the medication without consulting their healthcare provider as it can lead to adverse effects. Doubling the dose if a dose is missed can increase the risk of side effects and overdosage. It is crucial for patients to follow the prescribed dosing schedule and consult their healthcare provider for any concerns or missed doses.
4. A client admitted with a diagnosis of sepsis has a central venous pressure (CVP) of 15 mm Hg. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer a fluid bolus of 500 ml.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Administer a diuretic.
- D. Continue to monitor the CVP.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A CVP of 15 mm Hg is higher than normal, indicating possible fluid overload or heart failure, which needs immediate attention. Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial as they can evaluate the client's condition, order appropriate interventions, and prevent potential complications.
5. A client with portal hypertension who has developed ascites is scheduled for a paracentesis. What pre-procedure nursing intervention is essential?
- A. Encourage the client to empty the bladder
- B. Administer a laxative to clear the bowels
- C. Restrict the client's fluid intake
- D. Place the client in a supine position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Emptying the bladder before a paracentesis is essential to prevent bladder injury during the procedure. A full bladder may be in the path of the needle insertion, increasing the risk of bladder puncture. Encouraging the client to empty the bladder ensures their safety and reduces the likelihood of complications.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access