Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed erythropoietin (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output.
• B. Improved hemoglobin levels.
• C. Decreased blood pressure.
• D. Stable potassium levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improved hemoglobin levels. Erythropoietin (Epogen) stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels in clients with chronic renal failure. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy in managing anemia associated with chronic renal failure. While increased urine output, decreased blood pressure, and stable potassium levels are important parameters to monitor in clients with renal failure, they are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy.

2. A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?

• A. Decreased peripheral edema.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Increased heart rate.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased peripheral edema.' In a client with heart failure receiving furosemide, decreased peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt through increased urine output, leading to a reduction in peripheral edema, which is a common symptom of heart failure. Monitoring and recognizing this improvement in edema are crucial in managing heart failure effectively.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding should the provider expect?

• A. Increased anteroposterior chest diameter.
• B. Decreased respiratory rate.
• C. Dull percussion sounds over the lungs.
• D. Hyperresonance on chest percussion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased anteroposterior chest diameter. The increased anteroposterior chest diameter, often referred to as a barrel chest, is a common finding in clients with COPD due to hyperinflation of the lungs. This occurs because of the loss of lung elasticity and air trapping, leading to a more rounded chest shape. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased respiratory rate is not typically associated with COPD; instead, an increased respiratory rate may be seen due to the body's compensatory mechanisms. Dull percussion sounds and hyperresonance on chest percussion are not characteristic findings in COPD. Dull percussion sounds may be indicative of consolidation or pleural effusion, while hyperresonance is more commonly associated with conditions like emphysema.

4. An older adult with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease has been experiencing fecal incontinence, with no recent change in stool character noted by the nurse. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention?

• A. Keep a food diary to identify foods that worsen the client's symptoms
• B. Provide the client with a bland, low-residue diet
• C. Toilet the client on a frequent, scheduled basis
• D. Collaborate with the primary provider to secure an order for loperamide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for an older adult with Alzheimer's disease experiencing fecal incontinence and no change in stool character is to toilet the client on a frequent, scheduled basis. Scheduled toileting can help manage incontinence by establishing a routine for bowel movements, which may aid in reducing episodes of fecal incontinence.

5. A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and coronary artery disease (s/p coronary artery bypass graft two years ago) presents to the emergency room with fevers and left-sided abdominal pain. His physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.5°F, pulse 96, and blood pressure of 135/80. His abdomen is soft with moderate left lower quadrant tenderness. There is no rebound or guarding. Bowel sounds are present. A CT scan is done which reveals inflammation around an area of the left colon. The next step in his workup/management should be

• A. Antibiotic therapy with ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
• B. Referral for urgent colonoscopy
• C. Referral to a surgeon for immediate hemicolectomy
• D. Barium enema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with diverticulitis without evidence of perforation or abscess formation on CT scan. During acute infections, procedures like barium enema and colonoscopy should be avoided to prevent the risk of perforation. Urgent surgery is not indicated initially. The appropriate next step is to start antibiotic therapy aimed at gram-negative aerobes and anaerobes, such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole, which are the initial treatment of choice for diverticulitis.

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