Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
• C. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, an elevated serum potassium level (hyperkalemia) is the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias due to its effect on the electrical conduction system of the heart. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent serious complications. While elevated serum creatinine (Choice A) and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) levels (Choice B) indicate impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses an immediate risk of cardiac complications. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are typically lower in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production, but they do not present an immediate life-threatening risk like hyperkalemia.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who had a stroke. What task should be assigned to the assistive personnel?

• A. Assist the client with a partial bed bath
• B. Measure the client’s blood pressure after the nurse administers antihypertensive medications
• C. Use a communication board to ask what the client wants for lunch
• D. Feed the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assign the assistive personnel to assist the client with a partial bed bath. This task falls within the scope of practice for assistive personnel and is a common activity in caring for clients who have had a stroke. Choice B involves measuring blood pressure, which should be done by a licensed nurse. Choice C requires the use of a communication board, which can be done by any healthcare team member, not just assistive personnel. Choice D involves feeding the client, which may require assessment and intervention by a licensed nurse to ensure proper nutrition and safety.

3. Which statement best describes time management strategies applied to the role of a nurse manager?

• A. Schedule staff efficiently to cover the needs of the managed unit
• B. Assume a fair share of direct client care to set an example
• C. Set daily goals with a prioritization of tasks
• D. Delegate tasks to reduce workload associated with direct care and meetings

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Setting daily goals and prioritizing tasks is crucial for effective time management as a nurse manager. This approach helps in organizing and focusing on the most important responsibilities, ensuring that key tasks are completed efficiently. Choice A is incorrect as scheduling staff efficiently, while important, is more related to staffing management than direct time management strategies. Choice B is incorrect as assuming direct client care does not necessarily align with effective time management strategies for a nurse manager, as their primary role is overseeing and coordinating care. Choice D, while delegation is a key aspect of time management, the emphasis on reducing workload specifically associated with direct care and meetings may not always be the primary focus of a nurse manager's time management strategies.

4. A nurse is teaching the parents of a toddler about discipline. Which of the following actions should the nurse suggest?

• A. Establish consistent boundaries for the toddler.
• B. Place the toddler in a room with the door closed.
• C. Inform the toddler how you feel when he misbehaves.
• D. Use a favorite snack to reward the toddler.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to establish consistent boundaries for the toddler. This approach helps toddlers understand expectations and promotes consistent behavior. Placing the toddler alone or using food rewards may not effectively teach discipline and could be inappropriate. Informing the toddler about feelings when misbehaving may not be developmentally appropriate for a toddler to understand the consequences of their actions.

5. Before digital removal of a fecal impaction, which type of enema should the nurse give to loosen the feces?

• A. Oil Retention
• B. Saline
• C. Soapy Water
• D. Hypertonic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An oil retention enema containing mineral oil is the most suitable choice to help soften and loosen a fecal impaction before digital removal. Mineral oil lubricates and softens the stool, facilitating passage. Saline enemas draw water into the colon to promote bowel movements but may not effectively soften a fecal impaction. Soapy water enemas are primarily for cleansing, not softening stool. Hypertonic enemas eliminate fluid from the body and are not appropriate for loosening fecal impactions.

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