HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Practice Exam
1. A client with chronic congestive heart failure should be instructed to contact the home health nurse if which finding occurs?
- A. Weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period
- B. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day
- C. A significant decrease in appetite
- D. Appearance of non-pitting ankle edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period may indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring prompt medical evaluation and intervention. This finding is crucial in managing chronic congestive heart failure as it signifies a potential exacerbation of the condition. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning in this context. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day is within the normal range for most individuals and may not be directly related to heart failure. A significant decrease in appetite may be due to various factors and might not be an immediate cause for concern in heart failure patients. The appearance of non-pitting ankle edema, although related to heart failure, is a more chronic and less urgent symptom when compared to a rapid weight gain, which requires immediate attention.
2. A newborn presents with a pronounced cephalic hematoma following a birth in the posterior position. Which nursing diagnosis should guide the plan of care?
- A. Pain related to periosteal injury
- B. Impaired mobility related to bleeding
- C. Parental anxiety related to knowledge deficit
- D. Injury related to intracranial hemorrhage
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis to guide the plan of care for a newborn with a pronounced cephalic hematoma following a birth in the posterior position is 'Parental anxiety related to knowledge deficit.' This is appropriate because the parents may be worried about the appearance and potential complications of the cephalic hematoma. They may require education and reassurance from the nurse. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the emotional needs of the parents and the knowledge deficit they may have regarding the condition.
3. In order to be effective as an occupational health nurse, you should be equipped with knowledge and skills in which of the following:
- A. public health science
- B. research process
- C. interviewing and counseling
- D. oral and written communication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To be effective as an occupational health nurse, having knowledge and skills in public health science, the research process, interviewing and counseling, and oral and written communication are all important. However, communication skills, both oral and written, are crucial for conveying information, educating employees, documenting findings, and collaborating with other healthcare professionals. While public health science, research process, interviewing, and counseling are essential, oral and written communication is fundamental for effective communication and coordination in the workplace, making it the most critical skill for an occupational health nurse.
4. Which client has the highest risk for developing community-acquired pneumonia?
- A. a 40-year-old first-grade teacher who works with underprivileged children
- B. a 75-year-old retired secretary with exercise-induced wheezing
- C. a 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes
- D. a 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips meals and eats only vegetables
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because homeless individuals who are alcoholics and smoke have a higher risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to factors like poor living conditions, compromised immune systems, and increased exposure to infections. Choice A is less likely as the teacher's profession, while involving contact with children, may not pose as high a risk as the factors in choice C. Choice B may have respiratory issues but does not have the same risk factors as choice C. Choice D, the aerobics instructor, may have a healthy lifestyle but skipping meals and a restrictive diet do not directly correlate with a higher risk of pneumonia compared to the risk factors in choice C.
5. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving baclofen (Lioresal). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Muscle spasms
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drowsiness. Baclofen, a muscle relaxant commonly used to treat conditions like multiple sclerosis, can cause drowsiness as a side effect. Monitoring for drowsiness is important to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because baclofen is not known to cause hypertension. Choice B, Muscle spasms, is not a common side effect of baclofen but rather the symptom it is used to treat. Choice D, Tachycardia, is also incorrect as baclofen is not associated with causing an increase in heart rate.
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