Nursing Elites

1. A client with a peptic ulcer is scheduled for a vagotomy and pyloroplasty. The nurse explains that the purpose of this surgery is to:

• A. Increase acid secretion
• B. Reduce acid secretion
• C. Promote gastric emptying
• D. Remove the ulcerated area

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Reduce acid secretion." Vagotomy is performed to reduce acid secretion by cutting the vagus nerve, which stimulates acid production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A vagotomy does not increase acid secretion, promote gastric emptying, or remove the ulcerated area. It specifically aims to decrease acid production to help in the healing of peptic ulcers.

2. A client with tuberculosis is receiving isoniazid (INH). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hepatotoxicity
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Isoniazid (INH) can lead to hepatotoxicity, necessitating the monitoring of liver function tests. This adverse effect is characterized by liver damage and dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because isoniazid is not typically associated with hyperglycemia, hypotension, or hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing for signs and symptoms of hepatotoxicity in a client receiving isoniazid.

3. Tertiary prevention would best be described as:

• A. recovery from physical limitation and psychological regression
• B. health teaching and immunization
• C. rehabilitation of alcoholic and drug dependents
• D. preventing disability and maximum use of remaining capacity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tertiary prevention is the stage of prevention that aims at preventing disability and maximizing the use of remaining capacity. Choice A is more aligned with rehabilitation rather than tertiary prevention. Choice B refers to primary prevention by promoting health and preventing diseases. Choice C focuses on rehabilitation specific to alcohol and drug dependence, which is a form of secondary prevention, not tertiary prevention.

4. The public health RN is called to investigate a report of several cases of varicella at a daycare center. The daycare workers state that 5 children have been sent home over the past 2 weeks with fever and itchy blisters. Which intervention should the RN implement first?

• A. Validate that the children who were sent home had chickenpox.
• B. Ask the parents to take the child to see their pediatrician.
• C. Ask the parents to not send the child back to daycare until after 6 weeks.
• D. Tell the parents to send the child back to daycare; it was a mistake they were sent home.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to validate that the children who were sent home had chickenpox. This is crucial in confirming the presence of varicella, which is necessary for appropriate management and control of the outbreak. Option B is not the first intervention because the focus initially is on verifying the cases within the daycare center. Option C is incorrect as it suggests a prolonged exclusion period without confirming the diagnosis. Option D is inappropriate and potentially harmful, as sending a child back without proper assessment can lead to further spread of the infection.

5. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?

• A. Jaundice evident at 26 hours
• B. Hematocrit of 55%
• C. Serum bilirubin of 12 mg/dL
• D. Positive Coombs test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.

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