Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being discharged with home oxygen therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will keep my oxygen tank upright at all times.
• B. I will not use petroleum jelly to keep my nose from drying out.
• C. I will not smoke or allow others to smoke around me.
• D. I will call my doctor if I have difficulty breathing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Petroleum jelly is flammable and should not be used with oxygen therapy as it can increase the risk of fire. Using petroleum jelly near oxygen can lead to a fire hazard. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements that indicate proper understanding of oxygen therapy safety measures. Choice A emphasizes the importance of keeping the oxygen tank upright to prevent leaks, choice C highlights the necessity of avoiding smoking to prevent exacerbation of COPD, and choice D encourages seeking medical help promptly in case of breathing difficulties.

2. While suctioning a client's nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client's oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

• A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
• B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
• C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
• D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client's nose and mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx. Since the oxygen saturation remains stable at 94%, which was the initial reading, it indicates that the procedure is not causing a significant drop in oxygen levels. Stopping the suctioning or applying oxygen may not be necessary as the saturation level is within an acceptable range. Repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unlikely to change the reading significantly. Therefore, completing the procedure maintains care consistency and effectiveness, ensuring proper airway management without unnecessary interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip, stopping suctioning until a higher reading is achieved, and applying oxygen are not warranted based on the stable oxygen saturation level of 94% throughout the procedure.

3. A healthcare provider in an office is preparing to auscultate and percuss a client’s thorax as part of a comprehensive physical examination. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Rhonchi
• B. Crackles
• C. Resonance
• D. Tactile fremitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a thoracic examination, normal findings should include resonance, which is the expected sound when percussing the thorax. Resonance indicates healthy lung tissue and air-filled spaces. Abnormal findings such as rhonchi and crackles suggest issues like lung congestion or inflammation. Tactile fremitus refers to vibrations felt on the chest wall during palpation and is not typically assessed during percussion and auscultation of the thorax.

4. A client has a fecal impaction. Before digital removal of the mass, which of the following types of enemas should be administered to soften the feces?

• A. Oil retention
• B. Soapsuds
• C. Saline
• D. Hypertonic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An oil retention enema is the most appropriate choice to soften and lubricate the feces before digital removal. Oil retention enemas help in making the stool easier to remove digitally due to their lubricating properties. Soapsuds, saline, and hypertonic enemas are not specifically designed to soften feces and are used for different purposes. Soapsuds enemas are used for cleansing, saline enemas for bowel evacuation, and hypertonic enemas for bowel distension in preparation for diagnostic procedures.

5. A client is contemplating retirement and expresses uncertainty about wanting to retire. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Let’s talk about how the change in your job status will affect you.
• B. Have you considered the financial implications of retirement?
• C. What are your thoughts on retirement and how it may impact your life?
• D. Would you like to discuss potential activities you could engage in during retirement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choosing option A, 'Let’s talk about how the change in your job status will affect you,' is the most appropriate response in this scenario. By discussing how retirement might affect the client, the nurse can address the client's concerns and emotions about the impending change. Option B, 'Have you considered the financial implications of retirement?' is not the best response as it focuses solely on financial aspects and does not address the client's emotional readiness for retirement. Option C, 'What are your thoughts on retirement and how it may impact your life?' is more open-ended and may not address the immediate concerns of the client expressing uncertainty. Option D, 'Would you like to discuss potential activities you could engage in during retirement?' assumes the client is certain about retiring and focuses on activities rather than addressing the client's feelings of uncertainty.

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