Nursing Elites

1. The nurse plans to assist a male client out of bed for the first time since his surgery yesterday. His wife objects and tells the nurse to get out of the room because her husband is too ill to get out of bed. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer nasal oxygen at a rate of 5 L/min
• B. Help the client to lie back down in the bed
• C. Quickly pivot the client to the chair and elevate the legs
• D. Check the client’s blood pressure and pulse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before assisting the client out of bed, the nurse should first assess the client's blood pressure and pulse. This assessment is crucial to determine the client's physiological stability and readiness for ambulation. It ensures the client's safety during the transfer and helps prevent any potential complications that may arise from getting out of bed. Administering oxygen, lying the client back down, or quickly moving the client to a chair without assessing vital signs can compromise the client's safety and may lead to adverse outcomes.

2. The client is being taught how to perform active range of motion (ROM) exercises. To exercise the hinge joints, which action should the client be instructed to perform?

• A. Tilt the pelvis forwards and backwards
• B. Bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus
• C. Turn the head to the right and left
• D. Extend the arm at the side and rotate it in circles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hinge joints, like the elbow, primarily allow movement in one direction, in this case, bending the arm. The correct action to exercise hinge joints is to bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus. This movement specifically targets the hinge joint and promotes its range of motion. Choices A, C, and D involve movements that do not specifically target hinge joints. Tilt the pelvis involves the ball-and-socket joints of the hip, turning the head involves the pivot joint of the neck, and extending the arm and rotating it in circles involve multiple joints including ball-and-socket and pivot joints.

3. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client’s safety?

• A. Encourage the client to use oxygen continuously
• B. Monitor the client’s respiratory rate and effort
• C. Set the oxygen flow rate at 6 liters per minute
• D. Teach the client to avoid wearing wool blankets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring the client’s respiratory rate and effort is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of oxygen therapy and prevent complications such as respiratory depression. This intervention helps the nurse promptly detect any deterioration in the client's respiratory status and take necessary actions to ensure the client's safety. Encouraging continuous oxygen use (Choice A) may lead to oxygen toxicity. Setting the oxygen flow rate at a specific level (Choice C) without individual assessment can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Teaching the client to avoid wearing wool blankets (Choice D) is unrelated to the safe use of oxygen therapy.

4. What action should the nurse implement to prepare a client for the potential side effects of a newly prescribed medication?

• A. Assess the client for health alterations that may be impacted by the effects of the medication
• B. Teach the client how to administer the medication to promote the best absorption
• C. Administer a half dose and observe the client for side effects before administering a full dosage
• D. Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids to promote effective drug distribution

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before initiating a new medication, the nurse should conduct a thorough assessment of the client to identify any pre-existing health conditions or risk factors that could be affected by the medication. This assessment helps in establishing a baseline for monitoring potential side effects and determining the medication's appropriateness for the client. Choice B is incorrect as teaching the client how to administer the medication does not directly address preparing for potential side effects. Choice C is incorrect because administering a half dose without a proper assessment could be unsafe. Choice D is incorrect as encouraging fluid intake is not directly related to preparing for potential side effects of a medication.

5. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

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