HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. The nurse plans to assist a male client out of bed for the first time since his surgery yesterday. His wife objects and tells the nurse to get out of the room because her husband is too ill to get out of bed. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer nasal oxygen at a rate of 5 L/min
- B. Help the client to lie back down in the bed
- C. Quickly pivot the client to the chair and elevate the legs
- D. Check the client’s blood pressure and pulse
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Before assisting the client out of bed, the nurse should first assess the client's blood pressure and pulse. This assessment is crucial to determine the client's physiological stability and readiness for ambulation. It ensures the client's safety during the transfer and helps prevent any potential complications that may arise from getting out of bed. Administering oxygen, lying the client back down, or quickly moving the client to a chair without assessing vital signs can compromise the client's safety and may lead to adverse outcomes.
2. A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?
- A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
- B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
- C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
- D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.
3. The nurse is completing a client's preoperative routine and finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Witness the client's signature on the permit.
- B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
- C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the surgery.
- D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before the anesthesia is administered.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should inform the surgeon immediately that the operative permit is not signed and that the client has questions about the surgery. It is crucial for the surgeon to be aware of the situation so they can address the client's concerns, explain the procedure, and obtain the necessary signed permit before proceeding with the surgery. This ensures informed consent and compliance with preoperative protocols.
4. A client is admitted to the hospital with intractable pain. What instruction should the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is preparing to assist this client with a bed bath?
- A. Take measures to promote as much comfort as possible.
- B. Report any signs of drug addiction to the nurse immediately.
- C. Wait until the client's pain is gone before assisting with personal care.
- D. This client's pain will be difficult to manage, as the cause is unknown.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) preparing to assist a client with intractable pain is to take measures to promote as much comfort as possible. Intractable pain is resistant to relief, so ensuring comfort during all activities, including a bed bath, is crucial to enhance the client's well-being and quality of care.
5. During the digital removal of a fecal impaction, the nurse should stop the procedure and take corrective action if which client reaction is noted?
- A. Temperature increases from 98.8° to 99.0° F.
- B. Pulse rate decreases from 78 to 52 beats/min.
- C. Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 24 breaths/min.
- D. Blood pressure increases from 110/84 to 118/88 mmHg.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During digital removal of a fecal impaction, a vagal response can occur due to stimulation of the anal sphincter. If the client experiences bradycardia (pulse rate decreases), the nurse should stop the procedure immediately and take corrective action to prevent any complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate a vagal response, which is the expected adverse reaction during this procedure.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access