Nursing Elites

1. The nurse plans to assist a male client out of bed for the first time since his surgery yesterday. His wife objects and tells the nurse to get out of the room because her husband is too ill to get out of bed. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer nasal oxygen at a rate of 5 L/min
• B. Help the client to lie back down in the bed
• C. Quickly pivot the client to the chair and elevate the legs
• D. Check the client’s blood pressure and pulse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before assisting the client out of bed, the nurse should first assess the client's blood pressure and pulse. This assessment is crucial to determine the client's physiological stability and readiness for ambulation. It ensures the client's safety during the transfer and helps prevent any potential complications that may arise from getting out of bed. Administering oxygen, lying the client back down, or quickly moving the client to a chair without assessing vital signs can compromise the client's safety and may lead to adverse outcomes.

2. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

3. The caregiver learns the use of a gait belt from the nurse for a woman with right-sided weakness. The caregiver demonstrates the skill. Which observation indicates that the caregiver has learned how to perform this procedure correctly?

• A. Standing on the woman's strong side, the caregiver is ready to hold the gait belt if any evidence of weakness is observed.
• B. Standing on the woman's weak side, the caregiver provides security by holding the gait belt from the back.
• C. Standing behind the woman, the caregiver provides balance by holding both sides of the gait belt.
• D. Standing slightly in front and to the right of the woman, the caregiver guides her forward by gently pulling on the gait belt.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Standing on the weak side of the client and holding the gait belt from the back provides better security and support during ambulation, reducing the risk of falls. This positioning allows the caregiver to offer stability and assistance without interfering with the client's movement, ensuring safe ambulation for the client with right-sided weakness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal support and security needed for a client with right-sided weakness. Standing on the weak side and holding the gait belt from the back is the most effective way to assist the client while minimizing the risk of falls.

4. Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. Which action will the nurse take next?

• A. Clamp the catheter and recheck it in 60 minutes.
• B. Pull the catheter back 3 inches and redirect it upward.
• C. Leave the catheter in place and reattempt with another catheter.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of a possible obstruction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, if no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting the catheter, it is likely that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the first catheter in place will help locate the meatus more easily when attempting the second catheterization. This approach ensures correct placement of the catheter in the bladder and minimizes the risk of causing unnecessary discomfort or trauma to the patient.

5. When caring for an older incontinent client at risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection?

• A. Maintain standard precautions.
• B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for an older incontinent client at risk for infection is to maintain standard precautions. Standard precautions, which include proper handwashing, are essential in reducing the risk of infection transmission in vulnerable clients. Initiating contact isolation measures may not be necessary for all clients, and inserting an indwelling urinary catheter should be avoided unless medically necessary to prevent additional risks of infection. Instructing the client in the use of adult diapers is not an appropriate nursing intervention to prevent infection.

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