Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital. The client is experiencing difficulty breathing and is very anxious. The nurse notes that the client’s oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position
• B. Administer supplemental oxygen
• C. Perform a thorough respiratory assessment
• D. Start an IV infusion of normal saline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering supplemental oxygen is the first priority to address low oxygen saturation and ease breathing. In a client with COPD experiencing difficulty breathing and anxiety with oxygen saturation at 88%, providing supplemental oxygen takes precedence over other actions. Placing the client in a high Fowler’s position may help with breathing but does not address the immediate need for increased oxygenation. Performing a thorough respiratory assessment is important but should come after stabilizing the client's oxygen levels. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline is not the priority in this situation and does not directly address the client's respiratory distress.

2. What should the nurse monitor for during the IV infusion of vasopressin (Pitressin) in a client with bleeding esophageal varices?

• A. Vasodilatation of the extremities
• B. Chest pain and dysrhythmia
• C. Hypotension and tachycardia
• D. Decreasing GI cramping and nausea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the IV infusion of vasopressin in a client with bleeding esophageal varices, the nurse should monitor for chest pain and dysrhythmia. Vasopressin is a vasoconstrictor that can cause cardiovascular effects, including chest pain and dysrhythmias. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as vasopressin is not expected to cause vasodilatation of the extremities, hypotension, tachycardia, or improvements in GI symptoms such as cramping and nausea.

3. The client enters the room of a client with Parkinson’s disease who is taking carbidopa-levodopa. The client is arising slowly from the chair while the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) stands next to the chair. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Demonstrate how to help the client move more efficiently
• B. Offer a PRN analgesic to reduce painful movement
• C. Affirm that the client should arise slowly from the chair
• D. Tell the UAP to assist the client in moving more quickly

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to demonstrate how to help the client move more efficiently. As the client is arising slowly from the chair, providing guidance on proper movement techniques can improve the client's mobility and safety. Offering a PRN analgesic (Choice B) is not relevant to the client's situation as there is no indication of pain. Affirming that the client should arise slowly (Choice C) does not address the need for assistance in improving movement efficiency. Instructing the UAP to assist the client in moving more quickly (Choice D) may compromise the client's safety and is not the appropriate action to take.

4. A client with diabetic peripheral neuropathy has been taking pregabalin for 4 days. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Granulating tissue in foot ulcer
• B. Full volume of pedal pulse
• C. Reduced level of pain
• D. Improved visual activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Reduced level of pain.' Pregabalin is used to manage neuropathic pain, so a reduction in pain indicates the medication's effectiveness in this case. Granulating tissue in a foot ulcer and the full volume of a pedal pulse are not direct indicators of pregabalin's effectiveness in managing neuropathic pain. Improved visual activity is not related to the effects of pregabalin in diabetic peripheral neuropathy.

5. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?

• A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
• B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
• C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
• D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.

Similar Questions