HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Quizlet
1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital. The client is experiencing difficulty breathing and is very anxious. The nurse notes that the client’s oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position
- B. Administer supplemental oxygen
- C. Perform a thorough respiratory assessment
- D. Start an IV infusion of normal saline
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering supplemental oxygen is the first priority to address low oxygen saturation and ease breathing. In a client with COPD experiencing difficulty breathing and anxiety with oxygen saturation at 88%, providing supplemental oxygen takes precedence over other actions. Placing the client in a high Fowler’s position may help with breathing but does not address the immediate need for increased oxygenation. Performing a thorough respiratory assessment is important but should come after stabilizing the client's oxygen levels. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline is not the priority in this situation and does not directly address the client's respiratory distress.
2. A client with complaints of shortness of breath and abdominal pain 1 week after bariatric surgery is admitted for follow-up evaluation. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Rectal temperature of 101°F
- B. Complaints of left shoulder pain
- C. Blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg
- D. Sustained sinus tachycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg indicates possible hypovolemia or shock, which requires immediate attention. Hypotension can be a sign of decreased perfusion to vital organs, potentially leading to organ failure. The other options, such as a rectal temperature of 101°F, complaints of left shoulder pain, or sustained sinus tachycardia, while important, do not present the same level of immediate threat to the client's well-being as a critically low blood pressure.
3. An adult male who admits to abusing IV drugs obtains the results of HIV testing. When informed that the results are positive, he states that he does not want his wife to know. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Tell the client he is required by law to inform his sexual partners of his HIV status
- B. Counsel the client about the importance of notifying his sexual partner
- C. Inform the wife of her health risk related to her husband's HIV results
- D. Report the client's status as a sexually transmitted case to the health department
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should counsel the client on the importance of notifying partners about HIV status while respecting confidentiality. Mandatory partner notification laws vary by jurisdiction, so option A cannot be universally applied. Breaching patient confidentiality, as suggested in option C, is unethical. Reporting the client's status to the health department without consent, as in option D, is not appropriate as HIV status is confidential information and is not automatically reported as a sexually transmitted case.
4. A client with a large pleural effusion undergoes a thoracentesis. Following the procedure, which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. The client has asymmetrical chest wall expansion
- B. The client complains of pain at the insertion site
- C. The client's chest x-ray indicates decreased pleural effusion
- D. The client's arterial blood gases show pH 7.35, PaO2 85, PaCO2 35, HCO3 26
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Asymmetrical chest wall expansion is a critical finding post-thoracentesis as it may suggest a pneumothorax, requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The other options, such as pain at the insertion site (Choice B), decreased pleural effusion on chest x-ray (Choice C), and normal arterial blood gases within acceptable ranges (Choice D) do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like asymmetrical chest wall expansion does.
5. A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in early labor, and the nurse assesses the status of her contractions. The frequency of contractions is most accurately evaluated by counting the minutes and seconds in which manner?
- A. From the peak of one contraction to the peak of the next contraction
- B. From the beginning of one contraction to the end of that contraction
- C. From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction
- D. From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The frequency of contractions is measured from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction. This timing is crucial in determining the progress of labor. Choice A, measuring from peak to peak, is incorrect as it assesses the duration between the highest points of contractions, which is not how frequency is calculated. Choice B, measuring from the beginning to the end of one contraction, is incorrect as it does not consider the start of the next contraction. Choice D, measuring from the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction, is incorrect as it misses the initial onset of the following contraction.
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