Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital. The client is experiencing difficulty breathing and is very anxious. The nurse notes that the client’s oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position
• B. Administer supplemental oxygen
• C. Perform a thorough respiratory assessment
• D. Start an IV infusion of normal saline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering supplemental oxygen is the first priority to address low oxygen saturation and ease breathing. In a client with COPD experiencing difficulty breathing and anxiety with oxygen saturation at 88%, providing supplemental oxygen takes precedence over other actions. Placing the client in a high Fowler’s position may help with breathing but does not address the immediate need for increased oxygenation. Performing a thorough respiratory assessment is important but should come after stabilizing the client's oxygen levels. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline is not the priority in this situation and does not directly address the client's respiratory distress.

2. The nurse implements a tertiary prevention program for type 2 diabetes in a rural health clinic. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?

• A. Clients who developed disease complications promptly received rehabilitation
• B. More than 50% of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process
• C. Only 30% of clients did not attend self-management education sessions
• D. Average client scores improved on a specific risk factor knowledge test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in tertiary prevention, the focus is on managing complications and providing rehabilitation. Choice B is more aligned with primary prevention as it focuses on early diagnosis. Choice C's attendance in education sessions is not a direct indicator of managing complications. Choice D's improvement in knowledge does not directly measure the program's effectiveness in managing complications.

3. A client with intestinal obstructions has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction and is receiving an IV of lactated Ringer’s at 100 ml/H. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Gastric output of 900 mL in the last 24 hours
• B. Serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L or mmol/L (SI)
• C. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. 24-hour intake at the current infusion rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most crucial finding to report to the healthcare provider in this scenario is a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Hypokalemia can lead to serious complications, including cardiac issues. Gastric output, increased BUN, and monitoring the 24-hour intake are essential but do not pose an immediate risk as hypokalemia does in this situation.

4. A young adult who is hit with a baseball bat on the temporal area of the left skull is conscious when admitted to the ED and is transferred to the Neurological Unit to be monitored for signs of closed head injury. Which assessment finding is indicative of a developing epidural hematoma?

• A. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury
• B. Confusion immediately following the injury
• C. Headache that resolves quickly
• D. Brief loss of consciousness with a lucid interval

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Epidural hematoma often presents with a brief loss of consciousness followed by a lucid interval and then a rapid decline in consciousness. Therefore, altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after the injury is indicative of a developing epidural hematoma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because confusion immediately following the injury, headache that resolves quickly, and brief loss of consciousness with a lucid interval are not specific signs of epidural hematoma.

5. When a UAP reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats per minute, what action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds.
• B. Determine if the UAP also measured the client's capillary refill time.
• C. Assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical radial pulse deficit is present.
• D. Notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume. A weak pulse with bradycardia (pulse rate of 44 beats per minute) requires immediate follow-up to investigate potential underlying issues. In this situation, it is crucial to involve the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention. Instructing the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds (Choice A) may delay necessary actions. Determining capillary refill time (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing a weak pulse, and assigning an LPN to assess an apical radial pulse deficit (Choice C) is not as urgent as involving the healthcare provider.

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