Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of angina is prescribed amlodipine. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor the client for which adverse effect?

• A. Headache
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, commonly causes peripheral edema as an adverse effect. This is due to its vasodilation effects on blood vessels, leading to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to assess the client's response to amlodipine and ensure timely intervention if needed.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should monitor for which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Liver toxicity
• B. Skin rash
• C. Hair loss
• D. Abdominal pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver toxicity. Methotrexate is known to cause liver toxicity, making regular monitoring of liver function essential. Monitoring liver function tests helps detect any signs of liver damage early, allowing for appropriate interventions to be implemented promptly.

3. How do you determine if the medication is effective for a client with anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

• A. Food diary shows increased consumption of iron-rich foods
• B. Reports of increased energy levels and decreased fatigue
• C. Hemoglobin level increased to 12 grams/dL
• D. Takes concurrent iron therapy without adverse effects

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. To assess the effectiveness of medication for anemia in a client with CKD, monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial. Hemoglobin levels directly indicate the response to treatment and improvement in the condition. An increase in hemoglobin level to 12 grams/dL suggests that the medication is effectively addressing the anemia associated with CKD. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased consumption of iron-rich foods, reports of increased energy levels and decreased fatigue, and tolerance to concurrent iron therapy without adverse effects are not direct indicators of the medication's effectiveness in treating anemia secondary to CKD.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Weight gain
• C. Nausea
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect to monitor for when a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide is hypoglycemia. Glyburide can lead to hypoglycemia, particularly in individuals who do not eat regularly, by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas, which can lower blood sugar levels. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as confusion, sweating, and palpitations, to prevent complications and provide timely interventions.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed liraglutide. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Administer this medication once a week.
• B. Administer this medication once a month.
• C. Administer this medication twice a day.
• D. Administer this medication once a day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer liraglutide once a day. Liraglutide is typically prescribed to be taken once daily, as directed by the healthcare provider. This dosing schedule helps maintain consistent levels of the medication in the body to effectively manage blood sugar levels in clients with diabetes mellitus type 2. Option A, administering once a week, is incorrect as it would not provide consistent control of blood sugar levels. Option B, administering once a month, is also incorrect as it is not the recommended dosing frequency for liraglutide. Option C, administering twice a day, is inaccurate as liraglutide is not typically dosed in this manner. It is important for the nurse to emphasize the importance of adherence to the prescribed dosing regimen to achieve optimal therapeutic outcomes.

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