Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone (Risperdal). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
• B. I need to avoid foods that are high in tyramine.
• C. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. This medication may cause drowsiness, so avoid driving.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The statement 'I can stop taking this medication once I feel better' indicates a need for further teaching. Antipsychotic medications, like risperidone, should be taken consistently even when symptoms improve to prevent relapse. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding foods high in tyramine is unrelated to risperidone. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding alcohol is a standard precaution with many medications. Choice D is incorrect because being cautious about drowsiness and avoiding driving is a common safety measure associated with risperidone.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with major depressive disorder who is withdrawn and refuses to participate in group activities. What is the best nursing intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to attend at least one group session.
• B. Respect the client's wish to remain isolated.
• C. Arrange for individual therapy sessions.
• D. Offer the client a list of activities to choose from.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to attend at least one group session is the best nursing intervention in this scenario. By gently encouraging participation, the nurse can help the client start to engage with others, which may gradually improve their mood and social interaction. Choice B, respecting the client's wish to remain isolated, may further exacerbate the client's withdrawal and depression by reinforcing avoidance behavior. Choice C, arranging for individual therapy sessions, can be beneficial but may not address the specific need for social interaction. Choice D, offering a list of activities to choose from, does not directly address the client's difficulty in participating in group activities and may not provide the necessary support in overcoming social withdrawal.

3. A nurse working in a psychiatric unit is assessing a client who appears to be responding to internal stimuli. The client is laughing and talking to himself. What is the nurse's best initial response?

• A. Approach the client and ask if he is hearing voices.
• B. Ignore the behavior as it is common in psychiatric settings.
• C. Encourage the client to express his thoughts verbally.
• D. Observe the client's behavior from a distance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Approaching the client and asking if he is hearing voices is the best initial response by the nurse. This action can help assess the situation and determine if the client is experiencing hallucinations that may require immediate intervention. Choice B is incorrect because ignoring the behavior could lead to missing important signs of distress or potential risks. Choice C may not address the immediate concern of assessing for hallucinations. Choice D is also not ideal as observing from a distance may not provide the necessary information for immediate assessment and intervention.

4. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

5. An adult male client who was admitted to the mental health unit yesterday tells the nurse that microchips were planted in his head for military surveillance of his every move. Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?

• A. You are in the hospital, and I am the nurse caring for you.
• B. It must be difficult for you to control your anxious feelings.
• C. Go to occupational therapy and start a project.
• D. You are not in a war area now; this is the United States.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide is option A: 'You are in the hospital, and I am the nurse caring for you.' This response is effective as it grounds the client in the present reality while also acknowledging the client's feelings. It shows acceptance of the client's experience without directly challenging the delusional belief, which can help build rapport and trust. Option B focuses on anxiety rather than validating the client's experience or addressing the delusion. Option C suggests an unrelated activity that may not be helpful in this situation. Option D attempts to correct the client's belief, which is not likely to be effective in managing delusional thoughts.

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