Nursing Elites

1. A client who is post-operative from a bowel resection is experiencing abdominal distention and pain. The nurse notices the client has not passed gas or had a bowel movement. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client's bowel sounds.
• B. The client's fluid intake.
• C. The client's pain level.
• D. The client's surgical incision.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing bowel sounds is crucial in this situation as it helps determine if the client's gastrointestinal tract is functioning properly. Absent or hypoactive bowel sounds can indicate an ileus, a common post-operative complication. Assessing fluid intake (Choice B) is important but should come after assessing bowel sounds. Pain assessment (Choice C) is essential but addressing the physiological issue should take precedence. Checking the surgical incision (Choice D) is relevant but not the priority when the client is experiencing abdominal distention and potential gastrointestinal complications.

2. What disorder closely matches Suzy's symptoms?

• A. Antisocial personality disorder
• B. Borderline personality disorder
• C. Schizoid personality disorder
• D. Dissociative Identity Disorder

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Suzy's symptoms are characteristic of Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD). BPD includes instability in relationships, self-image, and emotions, as well as impulsivity and self-harm. Choice A, Antisocial personality disorder, is characterized by a disregard for others' rights and lack of empathy, which does not align with Suzy's symptoms. Schizoid personality disorder, choice C, is characterized by a lack of interest in social relationships, which is not a prominent feature in Suzy's case. Dissociative Identity Disorder, choice D, involves the presence of two or more distinct identities or personality states, which is not reflected in Suzy's symptoms.

3. The client with schizophrenia who continues to repeat the last words heard is exhibiting a sign of disturbed thought processes. Which nursing problem should the nurse document in the medical record?

• A. Altered sensory perception
• B. Impaired social interaction
• C. Risk for self-directed violence
• D. Disturbed thought processes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Disturbed thought processes. Echolalia, the repetition of words, is a sign of disturbed thought processes commonly seen in clients with schizophrenia. It reflects a disorganization in thinking rather than a sensory perception issue (Choice A). Impaired social interaction (Choice B) refers to difficulties in relating to others, which is not the primary concern in echolalia. Risk for self-directed violence (Choice C) focuses on potential harm to self, which is separate from the repetitive behavior of echolalia.

4. After administering pantoprazole to a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), which statement by the client indicates to the nurse that the medication is producing the desired effect?

• A. After eating my meal, I did not experience any heartburn
• B. I have a great appetite and am feeling really hungry
• C. I should increase the amount of vitamin C in my diet
• D. While eating, I had no difficulty swallowing any of the foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pantoprazole reduces stomach acid production, thus preventing the occurrence of heartburn after meals, which is a common symptom of GERD. Choice B is incorrect because an increased appetite and hunger are not indicators of the desired effect of pantoprazole. Choice C is unrelated to the medication's effect on GERD symptoms. Choice D is also incorrect because the absence of difficulty swallowing is not a specific indicator of pantoprazole's effectiveness in treating GERD.

5. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?

• A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
• B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
• C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
• D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.

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