Nursing Elites

1. A client who is post-operative from a bowel resection is experiencing abdominal distention and pain. The nurse notices the client has not passed gas or had a bowel movement. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client's bowel sounds.
• B. The client's fluid intake.
• C. The client's pain level.
• D. The client's surgical incision.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing bowel sounds is crucial in this situation as it helps determine if the client's gastrointestinal tract is functioning properly. Absent or hypoactive bowel sounds can indicate an ileus, a common post-operative complication. Assessing fluid intake (Choice B) is important but should come after assessing bowel sounds. Pain assessment (Choice C) is essential but addressing the physiological issue should take precedence. Checking the surgical incision (Choice D) is relevant but not the priority when the client is experiencing abdominal distention and potential gastrointestinal complications.

2. While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the PN observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the PN take?

• A. Loosen the fistula dressing
• B. Report the presence of a bounding pulse
• C. Document that the fistula is intact
• D. Apply gentle pressure over the site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A palpable buzzing sensation, known as a thrill, over an AV fistula indicates proper functioning. The correct action for the PN is to document that the fistula is intact. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to loosen the fistula dressing when the thrill is felt. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not related to the observed buzzing sensation. Choice D is incorrect because applying pressure is unnecessary when a thrill is present, indicating proper AV fistula function.

3. A dispersion consists of a solute dispersed through a dispersing vehicle. Which of the following dispersions is a liquid for topical application that contains insoluble solids or liquids?

• A. Ointment
• B. Lotion
• C. Paste
• D. Gel

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Lotion.' A lotion is a liquid dispersion that contains insoluble solids or liquids for topical application. Ointments are more semi-solid and occlusive, pastes are thicker and contain higher concentrations of solids, and gels have a jelly-like consistency due to their three-dimensional network structure. Therefore, among the options, a lotion is the most suitable choice for containing insoluble solids or liquids for topical application.

4. At the first dressing change, the PN tells the client that her mastectomy incision is healing well, but the client refuses to look at the incision and refuses to talk about it. Which response by the PN to the client's silence is best?

• A. You will feel better when you see that the incision is not as bad as you may think.
• B. It's OK if you don't want to look or talk about the mastectomy. I will be available when you're ready.
• C. Part of recovery is accepting your new body image, and you will need to look at your incision.
• D. Would you like me to call another nurse to be here while I show you the wound?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acknowledging the client's feelings and providing emotional support without pressuring them to look at the incision is important. Choice B is the best response as it respects the client's emotional readiness to confront their body image changes. The client's autonomy and emotional needs are prioritized in this response. Choice A may invalidate the client's feelings by assuming the incision is not as bad as they think, potentially dismissing their emotions. Choice C is insensitive as it imposes a particular view of recovery on the client, disregarding their current emotional state. Choice D may escalate the situation by suggesting the need for another nurse, which could make the client feel uncomfortable and pressured.

5. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?

• A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
• B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
• C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
• D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.

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