Nursing Elites

1. A client who has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia tells the LPN/LVN, 'I hear voices telling me to hurt myself.' What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices.
• B. Tell the client that the voices will go away with medication.
• C. Monitor the client for signs of self-harm.
• D. Refer the client for a psychiatric evaluation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to refer the client for a psychiatric evaluation. The client's statement indicating hearing voices telling them to hurt themselves is a serious concern and suggests a risk for self-harm. Referring the client for a psychiatric evaluation is crucial for further assessment and intervention by mental health professionals. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the voices may not address the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and does not address the immediate risk. Choice C is not as comprehensive as referring for a psychiatric evaluation, which is necessary in this situation.

2. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

• A. Describes life as without purpose.
• B. Exhibits an increase in sweating.
• C. States is often fatigued and drowsy.
• D. Complains of nausea and loss of appetite.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Expressing that life is without purpose can indicate deepening depression or suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. While sweating, fatigue, drowsiness, nausea, and loss of appetite can be side effects of duloxetine (Cymbalta), they do not indicate the same level of urgency as a statement suggesting deepening depression or suicidal ideation.

3. During discharge planning for a male client with schizophrenia who insists on returning to his apartment despite being informed to move to a boarding home, what is the most important nursing diagnosis?

• A. Ineffective denial related to situational anxiety.
• B. Ineffective coping related to inadequate support.
• C. Social isolation related to difficult interactions.
• D. Self-care deficit related to cognitive impairment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important nursing diagnosis for discharge planning in this scenario is 'Ineffective denial related to situational anxiety.' The client's insistence on returning to his apartment despite being informed otherwise indicates a form of denial, possibly due to anxiety about the situational change. Focused discharge planning should address this denial and the underlying anxiety to ensure a smooth transition. Choices B, C, and D are not as relevant in this context as the primary issue lies in the client's denial and anxiety regarding the change in living arrangements, rather than coping, social interactions, or self-care deficits.

4. A client is preparing to attend a Gamblers Anonymous meeting for the first time. The prototype used by this group is the 12-step program developed by Alcoholics Anonymous. Number in order of priority how the steps would be addressed.

• A. Admitting to oneself and to another human being the exact nature of one's wrongs
• B. Acknowledging that one is entirely ready to have his or her defects of character removed
• C. Admitting that oneself is powerless over gambling and that one's life has become unmanageable
• D. Making an effort to practice the 12-step principles in all affairs, and to carry out this message to other compulsive gamblers

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct order of addressing the 12-step program typically begins with admitting powerlessness over the addiction and recognizing the unmanageability of one's life (Choice C). Following this, individuals move towards acknowledging their wrongs and sharing them with others (Choice A), then being ready to work on changing their character defects (Choice B), and finally, integrating the 12-step principles into their daily lives and helping others (Choice D). Choices A, B, and C are important steps in the program but come after admitting powerlessness and unmanageability, which is why Choice D is the correct answer.

5. A 72-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depression. Which statement by the client should be of greatest concern to the nurse and require further assessment?

• A. "I will die if my cat dies."
• B. "I don't feel like eating this morning."
• C. "I just went to my friend's funeral."
• D. "Don't you have more important things to do?"

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sometimes a client will use an analogy to describe themselves, and (A) would be an indication for conducting a suicide assessment. (B) could have a variety of etiologies, and while further assessment is indicated, this statement does not indicate potential suicide. The normal grief process differs from depression, and at this client's age, peer/cohort deaths are more frequent, so (C) would be within normal limits. (D) is an expression of low self-esteem typical of depression. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are examples of decreased energy and mood levels which would negate suicide ideation at this time.

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