Nursing Elites

1. A client reports feeling dizzy and light-headed when standing up. What is the nurse's best initial action?

• A. Instruct the client to sit or lie down
• B. Monitor blood pressure and pulse
• C. Administer an anti-dizziness medication
• D. Increase fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor blood pressure and pulse. When a client reports feeling dizzy and light-headed when standing up, the nurse's best initial action should be to monitor the client's blood pressure and pulse. These symptoms are indicative of orthostatic hypotension, which can be confirmed by changes in blood pressure and pulse when moving from lying to standing positions. Instructing the client to sit or lie down may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause. Administering an anti-dizziness medication should not be the initial action without assessing vital signs first. Increasing fluid intake is important for overall health but is not the priority in this situation where vital sign monitoring is needed to assess for orthostatic hypotension.

2. The nurse assigns an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to feed a client who is at risk for aspiration. What action should the nurse take to ensure safety?

• A. Inform the UAP that suction is available at the bedside.
• B. Instruct the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes.
• C. Observe the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding.
• D. Ask the UAP about previous experience in performing this skill.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding is crucial to ensuring the client's safety, especially when there is a risk of aspiration. This hands-on observation allows the nurse to assess whether the UAP is competent in handling the feeding procedure safely. Informing the UAP about suction availability (Choice A) is important but does not directly assess the UAP's ability during feeding. Instructing the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes (Choice B) focuses on reactive measures rather than proactive supervision. Asking about previous experience (Choice D) does not provide real-time information on the UAP's current competency in handling the specific feeding task for the at-risk client.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a 6-month-old infant. Which site is most appropriate for this injection?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Ventrogluteal muscle
• C. Dorsogluteal muscle
• D. Vastus lateralis muscle

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The vastus lateralis muscle is the preferred site for intramuscular injections in infants due to its size and safety. The deltoid muscle is typically used for adults and older children. The ventrogluteal muscle is more commonly used in toddlers and older children. The dorsogluteal muscle is not recommended for intramuscular injections in any age group due to its proximity to major nerves and blood vessels, which poses a risk of injury or sciatic nerve damage.

4. A client requires application of an eye shield to the right eye. What should the nurse do in order to apply tape to anchor the shield most effectively?

• A. Place tape from the cheek to the forehead
• B. Secure tape from the nose to the ear
• C. Attach tape from the lower eyelid to the upper forehead
• D. Use circular bandaging around the head

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct way to apply tape to anchor an eye shield effectively is to attach the tape from the lower eyelid to the upper forehead. This method provides stability for the shield without putting pressure on the eye itself, thus helping to protect the eye. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taping from the cheek to the forehead, securing tape from the nose to the ear, or using circular bandaging around the head may not provide the necessary stability and protection required for the eye shield.

5. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.

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