HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1
1. A client reports feeling dizzy and light-headed when standing up. What is the nurse's best initial action?
- A. Instruct the client to sit or lie down
- B. Monitor blood pressure and pulse
- C. Administer an anti-dizziness medication
- D. Increase fluid intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor blood pressure and pulse. When a client reports feeling dizzy and light-headed when standing up, the nurse's best initial action should be to monitor the client's blood pressure and pulse. These symptoms are indicative of orthostatic hypotension, which can be confirmed by changes in blood pressure and pulse when moving from lying to standing positions. Instructing the client to sit or lie down may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause. Administering an anti-dizziness medication should not be the initial action without assessing vital signs first. Increasing fluid intake is important for overall health but is not the priority in this situation where vital sign monitoring is needed to assess for orthostatic hypotension.
2. When counting a client's radial pulse, the nurse notes the pulse is weak and irregular. To record the most accurate heart rate, what should the nurse do?
- A. Recheck the radial pulse in thirty minutes
- B. Palpate the radial pulse for thirty seconds and double the rate
- C. Count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds
- D. Compare the radial pulse rate bilaterally and record the higher rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds. The apical pulse is more accurate, especially when peripheral pulses are weak or irregular. Counting the apical pulse for a full minute provides a more precise heart rate measurement. Option A is incorrect because waiting for thirty minutes is unnecessary and could delay potential interventions. Option B is incorrect because doubling the radial pulse rate may not provide an accurate representation of the heart rate. Option D is incorrect because comparing radial pulses bilaterally does not give the most accurate heart rate measurement; the apical pulse is preferred in this situation.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of heparin. What is the correct angle of insertion?
- A. 15 degrees
- B. 30 degrees
- C. 45 degrees
- D. 90 degrees
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct angle of insertion for a subcutaneous injection, such as heparin, is 45 degrees. This angle is appropriate as it helps to ensure proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Option A (15 degrees) is too shallow for a subcutaneous injection and may result in the medication being deposited into the muscle. Option B (30 degrees) is also too shallow for subcutaneous injections. Option D (90 degrees) is used for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous injections.
4. After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse’s immediate intervention? The client who is...
- A. Short of breath after a shower and has a hemoglobin of 8 grams
- B. Bleeding from a finger stick and has a prothrombin time of 30 seconds
- C. Febrile and has a WBC count of 14,000/mm3
- D. Trembling and has a glucose level of 50 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.
5. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.
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