Nursing Elites

1. A client presents to the healthcare provider with fatigue, poor appetite, general malaise, and vague joint pain that improves mid-morning. The client has been using over-the-counter ibuprofen for several months. The healthcare provider makes an initial diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which laboratory test should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Sedimentation rate
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Anti–CCP antibodies
• D. Activated Clotting Time

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sedimentation rate. Sedimentation rate, Anti–CCP antibodies, and C-reactive protein are commonly used laboratory tests to indicate inflammation and help diagnose rheumatoid arthritis. An elevated sedimentation rate is a nonspecific indicator of inflammation in the body, which is often seen in RA. White blood cell count is not specific for RA and is not typically significant in the diagnosis. Anti–CCP antibodies are specific to RA and are useful in confirming the diagnosis. Activated Clotting Time is not relevant to the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis as it is not specific to this condition.

2. Which type of wound would most likely require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?

• A. Laceration
• B. Abrasion
• C. Contusion
• D. Ulceration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A laceration would most likely require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider due to its deeper tissue damage, significant bleeding, and higher risk of infection compared to abrasions, contusions, and ulcerations. Lacerations often need prompt attention to control bleeding, clean the wound, and reduce the risk of infection. Abrasions are superficial wounds that usually do not require urgent attention as they tend to heal well on their own with basic wound care. Contusions are bruises that typically resolve on their own without immediate intervention. Ulcerations are open sores that may require intervention but not necessarily immediate action unless complicated by infection or other issues.

3. A 37-year-old client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being treated for renal osteodystrophy. Which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be included in this client’s plan of care?

• A. High risk for infection related to subclavian catheter
• B. High risk of injury related to ambulation
• C. Knowledge deficit related to a high-protein diet
• D. Hygiene self-care deficit related to uremic frost

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Uremic frost is a condition in which urea and other waste products are excreted through the skin, leaving a powdery residue. This indicates poor hygiene and self-care, common issues in patients with CKD and renal osteodystrophy. Proper hygiene measures are essential to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be included in the plan of care for a CKD patient with renal osteodystrophy. Choice A is more related to a vascular access issue, choice B is more related to mobility concerns, and choice C is more related to dietary education.

4. A client complains of paresthesia in the fingers and toes and experiences hand spasms when the blood pressure cuff is inflated. Which serum laboratory finding should the nurse expect to find when assessing the client?

• A. Elevated serum calcium
• B. Low serum magnesium
• C. Low serum calcium
• D. Elevated serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Low serum calcium. Hand spasms and paresthesia are indicative of potential hypocalcemia, which is characterized by low serum calcium levels. Elevated serum calcium (Choice A) is not consistent with the symptoms described. Low serum magnesium (Choice B) and elevated serum potassium (Choice D) are not typically associated with hand spasms and paresthesia.

5. Four clients arrive on the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 38-week primigravida who reports contractions occurring every 10 minutes
• B. A 39-week primigravida with a biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8
• C. A 41-week multigravida who is scheduled for induction of labor today
• D. A 36-week multigravida with a prescription for serial blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8 indicates potential fetal distress, necessitating immediate assessment to ensure the well-being of the fetus. The other options, while important, do not suggest an immediate threat to the fetus' health. The 38-week primigravida with contractions every 10 minutes may be in early labor, the 41-week multigravida scheduled for induction can be assessed after addressing the immediate concern, and the 36-week multigravida with serial blood pressure can be assessed after ensuring the client with potential fetal distress is stabilized.

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