Nursing Elites

1. A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the LPN/LVN set the client's intravenous infusion pump?

• A. 13 ml/hour
• B. 63 ml/hour
• C. 80 ml/hour
• D. 125 ml/hour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct rate of infusion, divide the total volume by the total time: 250 ml / 4 hours = 62.5 ml/hour, which is rounded up to 63 ml/hour. This rate ensures the proper administration of the KCl over the 4-hour period. Choice A (13 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not match the calculated rate. Choices C (80 ml/hour) and D (125 ml/hour) are also incorrect as they do not correspond to the calculated rate needed for the specified time frame.

2. A group of newly licensed nurses is being taught about the Braden Scale by a nurse. Which of the following responses by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “The client’s age is not a factor in the measurement.”
• B. “The scale measures six elements.”
• C. “A lower score indicates a higher risk of pressure ulcers.”
• D. “Each element is scored on a range from 1 to 4 points.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the Braden Scale measures six elements: Sensory Perception, Moisture, Activity, Mobility, Nutrition, Friction, and Shear. The other choices are incorrect because: Choice A states that the client's age is not a factor in the measurement, which is accurate as age is not included in the Braden Scale. Choice C incorrectly states that a lower score indicates a higher risk of pressure ulcers, which is the opposite of how the Braden Scale works. Choice D inaccurately describes the scoring range of each element on the Braden Scale, which is not from 1 to 4 points but rather from 1 to 3.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB). Which type of isolation precautions should the healthcare provider implement?

• A. Droplet precautions
• B. Airborne precautions
• C. Contact precautions
• D. Standard precautions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB), airborne precautions should be implemented. Tuberculosis is spread through the air via droplet nuclei, requiring the use of airborne precautions to prevent the transmission of the infection. Droplet precautions are used for diseases spread by large respiratory droplets, such as influenza or pertussis. Contact precautions are used for diseases that spread through direct contact, such as MRSA. Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the transmission of infections from blood, body fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes.

4. A nurse is in a public building when someone cries out, 'Help! I think he is having a heart attack!' The nurse responds to the scene and finds the unconscious adult lying on the floor. Another bystander has obtained an AED. The nurse's first action, after ensuring someone has called for EMS, should be to:

• A. Administer cardiac compressions
• B. Attach the AED pads to the client
• C. Check for a pulse
• D. Perform rescue breaths

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a scenario where a person is unconscious and there is an indication of a possible heart attack, the immediate priority for the nurse should be to administer cardiac compressions. This action helps maintain circulation and ensures oxygenated blood reaches vital organs until the AED is available. Checking for a pulse or performing rescue breaths may delay essential circulation support, and attaching AED pads should follow the initial step of administering compressions to maximize the chances of a successful resuscitation.

5. A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?

• A. When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.
• B. The tube will be removed once your nausea improves.
• C. You can expect the tube to be removed in about a week.
• D. The tube will be removed once the drainage stops.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.

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