HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. A client is to have mafenide (Sulfamylon) cream applied to burned areas. For which serious side effect of mafenide therapy should the LPN/LVN monitor this client?
- A. Curling ulcer
- B. Renal shutdown
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Hemolysis of red blood cells
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metabolic acidosis is a serious side effect of mafenide therapy that should be closely monitored. Mafenide can lead to metabolic acidosis due to its inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, resulting in the accumulation of carbonic acid. Curling ulcer (Choice A) is a stress-related mucosal lesion that occurs in the duodenum, primarily due to severe burns, not directly related to mafenide therapy. Renal shutdown (Choice B) is not a common side effect of mafenide therapy. Hemolysis of red blood cells (Choice D) is not a recognized side effect of mafenide cream application.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing a care plan for a patient who is immobile. Which psychosocial aspect will the professional assess for?
- A. Loss of bone mass
- B. Loss of strength
- C. Loss of weight
- D. Loss of hope
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct. Loss of hope is a significant psychosocial aspect that healthcare professionals should assess for in patients who are immobile. Immobility can lead to feelings of hopelessness and depression, impacting the patient's mental well-being. Assessing for loss of hope allows healthcare professionals to provide appropriate support and interventions to address the patient's emotional needs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they primarily relate to physical changes (bone mass, strength, weight) rather than the psychosocial aspect of hope.
3. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Insomnia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.
4. A client with moderate persistent asthma is admitted for a minor surgical procedure. On admission, the peak flow meter is measured at 480 liters/minute. Post-operatively, the client is complaining of chest tightness. The peak flow has dropped to 200 liters/minute. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider
- B. Administer the PRN dose of Albuterol
- C. Apply oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula
- D. Repeat the peak flow reading in 30 minutes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with moderate persistent asthma experiencing a drop in peak flow and chest tightness post-operatively, the first action the nurse should take is to administer the PRN dose of Albuterol. Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that helps relieve bronchospasm and improve breathing. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice A) can be done after initiating immediate treatment with Albuterol. Applying oxygen (choice C) may be necessary but addressing the bronchospasm with Albuterol is the priority. Repeating the peak flow reading (choice D) can be considered after administering Albuterol to assess the response to treatment.
5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septicemia. Which assessment finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Increased urine output
- B. Decreased blood pressure
- C. Increased heart rate
- D. Increased respiratory rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with septicemia, decreased blood pressure is a critical finding that suggests potential septic shock, a life-threatening condition. Septic shock requires immediate medical intervention to prevent further deterioration and organ dysfunction. Increased urine output (Choice A) may indicate adequate fluid resuscitation, which is a positive response. Increased heart rate (Choice C) and increased respiratory rate (Choice D) are common physiological responses to sepsis and do not necessarily indicate immediate life-threatening complications like decreased blood pressure does in septic shock.
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