Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled to complete a positron emission tomography (PET) scan. The client asks the nurse to explain the reason the test was prescribed. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Images indicate the presence of tumors and scars.
• B. The scan clearly outlines structures of the brain.
• C. Results show activity in various portions of the brain.
• D. PET shows biochemical levels of neurotransmitters.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. PET scans are primarily used to detect and observe the metabolic activity in various parts of the brain. This helps in diagnosing conditions related to brain function, such as tumors, brain disorders, and overall brain activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because PET scans focus on metabolic activity and functions in the brain rather than solely indicating the presence of tumors, outlining brain structures, or showing biochemical levels of neurotransmitters.

2. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The client asks how long it will take for the medication to start working. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. You should start feeling better within a few days.
• B. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you notice an improvement.
• C. Buspirone works immediately to reduce anxiety symptoms.
• D. You will need to take this medication for at least a year.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Buspirone typically takes 2 to 4 weeks to become fully effective. It is essential to inform the client that it may take some time before they notice an improvement. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone does not work immediately. Choice C is also incorrect as buspirone does not provide immediate relief. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests a longer duration of treatment than necessary.

3. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. The LPN/LVN notes that the client has not bathed or dressed in clean clothes for several days. What is the most appropriate intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to take a shower.
• B. Assist the client with activities of daily living.
• C. Provide the client with clean clothes to change into.
• D. Explain the importance of personal hygiene to the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client with activities of daily living. This intervention is the most appropriate as it directly addresses the client's immediate needs by providing assistance with personal hygiene and dressing. It promotes self-care and ensures the client's well-being. Encouraging the client to take a shower (Choice A) may not be effective if the client is unable to do so independently due to their condition. Providing clean clothes (Choice C) is important but does not address the client's need for assistance with personal care. Explaining the importance of personal hygiene (Choice D) may not be as effective as providing direct assistance in this situation.

4. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor her frequently.
• B. Take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately.
• C. Describe the symptoms to the charge nurse and document them in the client's record.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of her medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.

5. The nurse observes a client who is admitted to the mental health unit and identifies that the client is talking continuously, using words that rhyme but that have no context or relationship with one topic to the next in the conversation. This client's behavior and thought processes are consistent with which syndrome?

• A. Dementia
• B. Depression
• C. Schizophrenia
• D. Chronic brain syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is demonstrating symptoms of schizophrenia, such as disorganized speech that may include word salad (a type of communication that mixes real and imaginary words in no logical order), incoherent speech, and clanging (rhyming). Dementia (Choice A) is characterized by memory loss and cognitive decline, not by disorganized speech. Depression (Choice B) typically presents with persistent feelings of sadness and loss of interest, not disorganized speech. Chronic brain syndrome (Choice D) is a vague term and does not specifically describe the symptoms mentioned in the scenario.

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