Nursing Elites

1. A client is post-operative day two from an abdominal surgery and reports feeling weak and lightheaded when attempting to get out of bed. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Encourage the client to drink fluids.
• B. Assist the client back to bed and monitor vital signs.
• C. Administer a prescribed antiemetic.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to assist the client back to bed and monitor vital signs. The client's symptoms of feeling weak and lightheaded could indicate potential issues like hypotension or dehydration, which need to be assessed promptly. Encouraging fluids (Choice A) could be beneficial but is not the immediate priority. Administering an antiemetic (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the client's symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after the client has been stabilized and assessed.

2. A client post-thoracotomy is complaining of severe pain with deep breathing and coughing. What should the nurse encourage the client to do to manage the pain and prevent respiratory complications?

• A. Hold a pillow against the chest while coughing (splinting).
• B. Take shallow breaths to avoid pain.
• C. Increase the dose of pain medication.
• D. Avoid deep breathing exercises.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Splinting the chest with a pillow helps manage pain during deep breathing and coughing, which is essential to prevent respiratory complications such as atelectasis or pneumonia after thoracic surgery. Holding a pillow against the chest while coughing (splinting) supports the incision site and reduces the pain associated with deep breathing and coughing. Encouraging shallow breaths (Choice B) can lead to respiratory complications due to inadequate lung expansion. Increasing pain medication (Choice C) should be done based on healthcare provider orders and not solely for this situation. Avoiding deep breathing exercises (Choice D) can worsen respiratory function and increase the risk of complications.

3. A client who is post-operative from a bowel resection is experiencing abdominal distention and pain. The nurse notices the client has not passed gas or had a bowel movement. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client's bowel sounds.
• B. The client's fluid intake.
• C. The client's pain level.
• D. The client's surgical incision.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing bowel sounds is crucial in this situation as it helps determine if the client's gastrointestinal tract is functioning properly. Absent or hypoactive bowel sounds can indicate an ileus, a common post-operative complication. Assessing fluid intake (Choice B) is important but should come after assessing bowel sounds. Pain assessment (Choice C) is essential but addressing the physiological issue should take precedence. Checking the surgical incision (Choice D) is relevant but not the priority when the client is experiencing abdominal distention and potential gastrointestinal complications.

4. Which disorder is characterized by demyelination of neurons in the central nervous system?

• A. Multiple sclerosis
• B. Parkinson's disease
• C. Alzheimer's disease
• D. Huntington's disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Multiple sclerosis is the correct answer. It is an autoimmune disease that specifically targets and damages the myelin sheath surrounding neurons in the central nervous system. This demyelination disrupts the transmission of nerve signals and leads to a variety of neurological symptoms. Parkinson's disease (Choice B), Alzheimer's disease (Choice C), and Huntington's disease (Choice D) are neurodegenerative disorders that do not primarily involve demyelination of neurons in the CNS. Parkinson's disease is characterized by the loss of dopamine-producing neurons, Alzheimer's disease by the formation of plaques and tangles in the brain, and Huntington's disease by a genetic mutation affecting nerve cells.

5. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?

• A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
• B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
• C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
• D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.

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