Nursing Elites

1. A client is post-operative day two from an abdominal surgery and reports feeling weak and lightheaded when attempting to get out of bed. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Encourage the client to drink fluids.
• B. Assist the client back to bed and monitor vital signs.
• C. Administer a prescribed antiemetic.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to assist the client back to bed and monitor vital signs. The client's symptoms of feeling weak and lightheaded could indicate potential issues like hypotension or dehydration, which need to be assessed promptly. Encouraging fluids (Choice A) could be beneficial but is not the immediate priority. Administering an antiemetic (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the client's symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after the client has been stabilized and assessed.

2. When administering parenteral iron, which action would be inconsistent with proper administration?

• A. Using the Z-track method
• B. Using an air bubble to avoid withdrawing medication into subcutaneous tissue
• C. Not massaging the injection site
• D. Using the deltoid muscle for administration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Using the deltoid muscle for administration. Administering parenteral iron in the deltoid muscle is not recommended due to the risk of irritation and pain. The Z-track method (choice A) is preferred to prevent staining and irritation of the skin when administering irritating medications like iron. Using an air bubble (choice B) to avoid withdrawing medication into subcutaneous tissue is a common practice to ensure accurate administration. Not massaging the injection site (choice C) is also a standard practice to prevent potential irritation or bleeding at the injection site.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.

4. Before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity, which lab value is most important for the nurse to review?

• A. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
• B. Serum Calcium
• C. Serum Creatinine
• D. WBC

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum Creatinine. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. Reviewing this value is crucial as it helps assess the client's risk for nephrotoxicity before administering the antibiotic. Elevated serum creatinine levels can indicate impaired kidney function, which would increase the risk of nephrotoxicity. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly related to kidney function and nephrotoxicity. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess for anemia, serum calcium levels monitor calcium balance, and WBC count evaluates for infections. While these values are important for overall patient assessment, they are not as specific to assessing nephrotoxicity risk as serum creatinine.

5. A client is recovering from a below-the-knee amputation (BKA). The client reports phantom limb pain. What should the nurse include in the client’s care plan to manage this type of pain?

• A. Apply heat to the residual limb.
• B. Administer prescribed analgesics.
• C. Elevate the residual limb.
• D. Perform range-of-motion exercises.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Phantom limb pain is a type of pain that feels like it's coming from a body part that's no longer there. It is essential to understand that phantom limb pain is real and should be managed appropriately. Administering prescribed analgesics is the most effective way to address this discomfort. Applying heat, elevating the residual limb, and performing range-of-motion exercises are not effective in managing phantom limb pain since the pain originates from the brain expecting sensory input from the missing limb, rather than being related to physical factors that heat, elevation, or exercises can address.

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