Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with acute low back pain. What action should the nurse implement to promote comfort?

• A. Ambulate with a walker for upper body support
• B. Perform abdominal curls to stretch the back muscles
• C. Position in semi-Fowler's with the knees flexed
• D. Encourage straight leg raises while lying supine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Positioning the client in semi-Fowler's with the knees flexed is the most appropriate action to promote comfort in a client with acute low back pain. This position helps alleviate low back pain by reducing the pressure on the spine and supporting its natural curvature. Ambulating with a walker could strain the back, performing abdominal curls may exacerbate the pain, and straight leg raises while lying supine could cause further discomfort. Therefore, only positioning the client in semi-Fowler's with the knees flexed is the correct choice for promoting comfort in this scenario.

2. A 3-year-old boy was successfully toilet trained prior to his admission to the hospital for injuries sustained from a fall. His parents are very concerned that the child has regressed in his toileting behaviors. Which information should the nurse provide to the parents?

• A. Children usually resume their toileting behaviors when they leave the hospital
• B. A retraining program will need to be initiated when the child returns home
• C. Diapering will be provided since hospitalization is stressful to preschoolers
• D. A potty chair should be brought from home so he can maintain his toileting skills

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Children often regress in toileting behaviors during hospitalization due to stress and changes in routine. However, they usually resume normal behaviors once they are discharged and back in their familiar environment. Providing reassurance to the parents that the child is likely to return to his previous toileting habits after leaving the hospital can help alleviate their concerns. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the normal pattern of behavior regression and recovery in toileting skills associated with hospitalization.

3. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?

• A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
• B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
• C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
• D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.

4. Two hours after delivering a 9-pound infant, a client saturates a perineal pad every 15 minutes. Although an IV containing Pitocin is infusing, her uterus remains boggy, even with massage. The healthcare provider prescribes methylergometrine maleate (Methergine) 0.2 mg IM STAT. Which complication should the nurse be alert to this client developing?

• A. Decreased respiratory rate
• B. Increased temperature
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypertension. Methylergometrine maleate (Methergine) is a medication used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions. One of the potential side effects is hypertension. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's blood pressure after administering Methergine. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Methergine is not known to cause decreased respiratory rate, increased temperature, or tachycardia.

5. A client with a BMI of 60.2 kg/m² is admitted to the intensive care unit 3 weeks after gastric bypass with gastric rupture and impending multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). What should the nurse prepare to implement first?

• A. Mechanical ventilation
• B. Platelet transfusion
• C. Loop diuretic therapy
• D. Cyanocobalamin administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this critical situation with gastric rupture and impending MODS, the priority intervention should be mechanical ventilation. This client is at risk of respiratory compromise due to the severity of the condition. Platelet transfusion (Choice B) is not the priority as there is no indication of significant bleeding. Loop diuretic therapy (Choice C) and cyanocobalamin administration (Choice D) are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not address the urgent need for respiratory support.

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