HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI Practice Questions
1. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, manic phase. Which activity is most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to suggest to the client?
- A. Playing a game of basketball with other clients.
- B. Taking a walk with the nurse in the garden.
- C. Working on a puzzle in a quiet room.
- D. Writing in a journal.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, individuals may experience heightened levels of energy and agitation. Engaging in activities that are overly stimulating, such as playing basketball with others (choice A) or taking a walk in a garden (choice B), can exacerbate these symptoms. Writing in a journal (choice D) may also be too stimulating and may not provide the necessary distraction. Working on a puzzle in a quiet room (choice C) can offer a calming and focused activity that helps reduce anxiety and channel excess energy into a structured task, making it the most appropriate choice for a client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder.
2. A client who has just been sexually assaulted is calm and quiet. The nurse analyzes this behavior as indicating which defense mechanism?
- A. Denial
- B. Projection
- C. Rationalization
- D. Intellectualization
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Denial. In this situation, the client's calm and quiet demeanor after a traumatic event like sexual assault may indicate denial, a defense mechanism where the individual refuses to acknowledge the reality of the distressing event. Choice B, Projection, involves attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others. Choice C, Rationalization, is a defense mechanism where logical reasoning is used to justify behaviors or feelings. Choice D, Intellectualization, is a defense mechanism where excessive reasoning or logic is used to avoid uncomfortable emotions.
3. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
- B. Monitor the client's vital signs.
- C. Place the client on seizure precautions.
- D. Encourage the client to express feelings about withdrawal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal, the first intervention the nurse should implement is to monitor the client's vital signs. Vital sign monitoring is crucial to assess for any potential complications such as hypertension, tachycardia, fever, or other signs of autonomic hyperactivity. Administering medication like lorazepam (Ativan) would come after assessing the vital signs to determine the need for pharmacological intervention. Placing the client on seizure precautions is important, but assessing vital signs takes precedence to ensure immediate safety. Encouraging the client to express feelings about withdrawal is a supportive intervention but does not address the immediate physiological risk associated with alcohol withdrawal.
4. A client with schizophrenia who has been stabilized on medication is being discharged from the hospital. What discharge teaching is most important for the LPN/LVN to reinforce?
- A. The importance of adhering to the prescribed medication regimen.
- B. How to recognize early signs of relapse.
- C. The need to continue follow-up appointments with the healthcare provider.
- D. The importance of maintaining a healthy lifestyle, including proper diet and exercise.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Reinforcing the importance of adhering to the prescribed medication regimen is crucial for preventing relapse in clients with schizophrenia. Compliance with medication is essential in managing the symptoms and preventing a worsening of the condition. Choice B, recognizing early signs of relapse, is important but secondary to ensuring medication adherence. Choice C, follow-up appointments, is also important but not as critical as medication compliance immediately post-discharge. Choice D, maintaining a healthy lifestyle, is beneficial for overall health but is not as directly linked to preventing relapse in schizophrenia as medication adherence.
5. A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). The client asks, 'How long will it take for this medication to work?' What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you start feeling better.
- B. You should start feeling better within a few days.
- C. The medication works immediately to improve your mood.
- D. It may take up to 8 weeks for the medication to take full effect.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Explaining that it may take up to 8 weeks for the medication to take full effect provides the client with a realistic expectation. SSRI medications typically require time to build up in the body and exert their therapeutic effects. Choice A is incorrect as it underestimates the time frame required for the medication to work. Choice B is incorrect as SSRIs do not produce immediate effects. Choice C is incorrect as it falsely states that the medication works immediately, which is not true for SSRIs.
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