Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the hospital with second and third degree burns to the face and neck. How should the nurse best position the client to maximize function of the neck and face and prevent contracture?

• A. The neck extended backward using a rolled towel behind the neck
• B. Prone position using pillows to support both arms outward from the torso
• C. Side-lying position using pillows to support the abdomen and back
• D. The neck forward using pillows under the head and sandbags on both sides

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After sustaining burns to the face and neck, positioning is crucial to maintain functional posture, reduce pain, and prevent contractures. Placing the neck forward using pillows under the head and sandbags on both sides is the best option in this scenario. This position helps prevent neck and facial contractures, allowing for optimal function and healing. Choices A, B, and C do not adequately address the specific needs of a client with burns to the face and neck. Choice A could potentially exacerbate neck contractures, Choice B focuses on arm support rather than neck and face positioning, and Choice C does not directly address the needs of the burned face and neck, making them less effective in preventing contractures in these critical areas.

2. When providing care for a client receiving palliative care for terminal cancer, what should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Pain management
• B. Arranging family visits
• C. Discussing advance directives
• D. Providing nutritional support

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a client receiving palliative care for terminal cancer, the nurse should prioritize pain management. Effective pain management is crucial in enhancing the quality of life for terminally ill patients. While arranging family visits and discussing advance directives are important aspects of care, pain management takes precedence in providing comfort and alleviating suffering. Nutritional support is essential but may be of lesser priority compared to pain management in this context.

3. A client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Increases joint lubrication
• B. Reduces inflammation by suppressing the immune system
• C. Enhances bone density
• D. Stimulates cartilage regeneration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Methotrexate is an immunosuppressant that works by suppressing the immune system, thereby reducing inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis. Methotrexate does not directly increase joint lubrication (Choice A) as its primary action is on the immune system. Choices C and D are incorrect since methotrexate does not enhance bone density or stimulate cartilage regeneration. It is crucial for healthcare providers to understand the mechanism of action of medications to provide safe and effective care to patients.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. What is the most important action to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTI)?

• A. Perform hand hygiene before and after handling the catheter
• B. Change the catheter every 72 hours
• C. Apply antibiotic ointment at the insertion site
• D. Irrigate the catheter daily

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing hand hygiene before and after handling the catheter is crucial in preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTI). This practice helps minimize the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms into the urinary tract. Changing the catheter every 72 hours is not recommended unless clinically indicated as it can increase the risk of infection. Applying antibiotic ointment at the insertion site is not a standard practice and may contribute to antibiotic resistance. Irrigating the catheter daily is unnecessary and can introduce pathogens into the urinary tract, increasing the risk of infection.

5. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?

• A. Decreased sexual libido
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Quickening
• D. Nocturia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.

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