a client is 48 hours post op from a bowel resection and has not had a bowel movement the client is complaining of abdominal pain and bloating what is
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2024

1. A client is 48 hours post-op from a bowel resection and has not had a bowel movement. The client is complaining of abdominal pain and bloating. What is the nurse’s best action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultating bowel sounds is the best initial action in this situation. It helps the nurse assess bowel function before considering interventions like administering a laxative. Abdominal pain and bloating could be indicative of bowel motility issues, and auscultation can provide crucial information. Encouraging increased fluid intake can be beneficial in promoting bowel movement, but assessing bowel sounds is more immediate to evaluate the current status. Notifying the healthcare provider should be reserved for situations where immediate intervention is needed or if the condition worsens after assessment.

2. The nurse enters a male client's room to administer routine morning medications, and the client is on the phone. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to wait for the client to excuse himself from the telephone conversation and then observe the client taking the medication. This approach ensures that the client takes the medication as prescribed, promoting compliance and safety. Choice A is not ideal as it involves unnecessary delegation and may lead to confusion. Choice C is incorrect because assuming refusal without direct communication can compromise patient care. Choice D is not recommended as leaving the medication with the client unsupervised may result in non-compliance or potential errors.

3. A child with glomerulonephritis is admitted in the acute edematous phase. Based on this diagnosis, which nursing intervention should the nurse plan to include in the child's plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure blood pressure every 4 to 6 hours. Monitoring blood pressure frequently is crucial in managing glomerulonephritis, as hypertension is a common complication during the acute edematous phase. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the specific needs of a child with glomerulonephritis. Choice B is incorrect as excessive activity may not be suitable during the acute phase, as rest and monitoring are more important. Choice D is incorrect as the focus should be on monitoring vital signs rather than meal options.

4. After administering pantoprazole to a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), which statement by the client indicates to the nurse that the medication is producing the desired effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pantoprazole reduces stomach acid production, thus preventing the occurrence of heartburn after meals, which is a common symptom of GERD. Choice B is incorrect because an increased appetite and hunger are not indicators of the desired effect of pantoprazole. Choice C is unrelated to the medication's effect on GERD symptoms. Choice D is also incorrect because the absence of difficulty swallowing is not a specific indicator of pantoprazole's effectiveness in treating GERD.

5. In obtaining an orthostatic vital sign measurement, what action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action when obtaining an orthostatic vital sign measurement is to instruct the client to lie supine. This allows for establishing a baseline measurement of vital signs before any positional changes. Counting the client's radial pulse (Choice A) is a step that follows after the initial supine position to assess changes in pulse rate. Applying a blood pressure cuff (Choice B) and assisting the client to stand upright (Choice D) are actions that come later in the process after the baseline measurements are obtained in the supine position.

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