Nursing Elites

1. A client is 48 hours post-op from a bowel resection and has not had a bowel movement. The client is complaining of abdominal pain and bloating. What is the nurse’s best action?

• A. Administer a prescribed laxative.
• B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• C. Auscultate bowel sounds.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultating bowel sounds is the best initial action in this situation. It helps the nurse assess bowel function before considering interventions like administering a laxative. Abdominal pain and bloating could be indicative of bowel motility issues, and auscultation can provide crucial information. Encouraging increased fluid intake can be beneficial in promoting bowel movement, but assessing bowel sounds is more immediate to evaluate the current status. Notifying the healthcare provider should be reserved for situations where immediate intervention is needed or if the condition worsens after assessment.

2. To accommodate a patient who is an Orthodox Jew, you would assure that her diet does not include which of the following?

• A. Any combination of meat and milk at the same meal
• B. Fish with scales
• C. Salmon
• D. Grape juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Orthodox Jewish dietary laws prohibit mixing meat and dairy in the same meal, so to accommodate an Orthodox Jew, you should ensure that their diet does not include any combination of meat and milk at the same meal. Choices B, C, and D are not prohibited in a kosher diet. Fish with scales, including salmon, are typically kosher, and grape juice is also permissible under kosher guidelines if certified. Therefore, options B, C, and D are acceptable in an Orthodox Jewish diet, while option A contradicts their dietary laws.

3. Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?

• A. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
• B. Cystic fibrosis
• C. Down syndrome
• D. Sickle cell anemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.

4. Which type of isolation is required for a patient with measles?

• A. Contact isolation
• B. Airborne isolation
• C. Droplet isolation
• D. Reverse isolation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Airborne isolation. Measles is highly contagious and can be transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne isolation is necessary to prevent its spread. Choice A, Contact isolation, is incorrect because measles is not primarily transmitted through direct contact. Choice C, Droplet isolation, is also incorrect as measles is not transmitted through large droplets but through smaller airborne particles. Choice D, Reverse isolation, is used to protect a patient from outside infections, not to prevent the spread of a contagious disease like measles.

5. Which vitamin deficiency is most associated with night blindness?

• A. Vitamin A
• B. Vitamin B12
• C. Vitamin C
• D. Vitamin D

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin A. Vitamin A deficiency leads to night blindness because this vitamin is crucial for the formation of rhodopsin, a photopigment in the retina. Rhodopsin is essential for vision in low-light conditions. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to anemia and neurological issues but is not directly related to night blindness. Vitamin C deficiency can cause scurvy, affecting connective tissues, but not night vision. Vitamin D deficiency can lead to bone disorders but is not primarily associated with night blindness.

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