Nursing Elites

1. A client is 48 hours post-op from a bowel resection and has not had a bowel movement. The client is complaining of abdominal pain and bloating. What is the nurse’s best action?

• A. Administer a prescribed laxative.
• B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• C. Auscultate bowel sounds.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultating bowel sounds is the best initial action in this situation. It helps the nurse assess bowel function before considering interventions like administering a laxative. Abdominal pain and bloating could be indicative of bowel motility issues, and auscultation can provide crucial information. Encouraging increased fluid intake can be beneficial in promoting bowel movement, but assessing bowel sounds is more immediate to evaluate the current status. Notifying the healthcare provider should be reserved for situations where immediate intervention is needed or if the condition worsens after assessment.

2. Before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity, which lab value is most important for the PN to review?

• A. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
• B. Serum Calcium
• C. Serum Creatinine
• D. WBC

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Serum creatinine is the most important lab value to review before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity. This is because serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. An elevated serum creatinine level may indicate impaired renal function, and administering nephrotoxic drugs in such situations can further damage the kidneys. Monitoring serum creatinine levels helps healthcare providers assess renal function and make informed decisions regarding drug administration. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly related to kidney function and nephrotoxicity, making them less crucial in this scenario. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess for anemia, serum calcium levels are more related to bone health and nerve function, and WBC count is associated with immune response, none of which directly reflect kidney function or the risk of nephrotoxicity.

3. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for managing delirium in an elderly patient?

• A. Keeping the room brightly lit
• B. Administering sedatives as needed
• C. Encouraging family presence
• D. Restricting fluids

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging family presence is the most appropriate intervention for managing delirium in elderly patients. This intervention provides orientation, reassurance, and comfort, which can help reduce confusion and anxiety, thus aiding in managing delirium. Keeping the room brightly lit (Choice A) may worsen delirium as it can disrupt the patient's sleep-wake cycle. Administering sedatives (Choice B) should be avoided unless absolutely necessary due to the risk of worsening delirium. Restricting fluids (Choice D) is not a recommended intervention for managing delirium, as hydration is important for overall patient well-being.

4. Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with mood regulation and is targeted by antidepressants?

• A. Serotonin
• B. Dopamine
• C. GABA
• D. Acetylcholine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin. Serotonin plays a vital role in mood regulation, and its imbalance is often associated with depression. Many antidepressants function by boosting serotonin levels in the brain. Dopamine (Choice B) is more linked to reward and pleasure pathways in the brain, not primarily targeted for mood regulation. GABA (Choice C) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that helps reduce neuronal excitability, not primarily associated with mood regulation. Acetylcholine (Choice D) is involved in muscle movement and cognitive functions, not the primary target of antidepressants for mood regulation.

5. What is the primary cause of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

• A. Insulin deficiency
• B. Overhydration
• C. Excess carbohydrate intake
• D. Excess insulin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insulin deficiency. Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs due to a severe lack of insulin, causing the body to break down fat for energy, leading to the production of ketones and acidification of the blood. Option B, Overhydration, is incorrect as DKA is characterized by dehydration rather than overhydration. Option C, Excess carbohydrate intake, is incorrect because while high blood sugar levels can contribute to DKA, the primary cause is insulin deficiency. Option D, Excess insulin, is also incorrect as DKA is not caused by an excess of insulin but rather by a lack of it.

Similar Questions