Nursing Elites

1. A client has metoprolol prescribed. The nurse should reinforce instructions that this medication has which potential adverse effect?

• A. Anxiety
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Sexual dysfunction
• D. Acute renal failure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sexual dysfunction. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can cause sexual dysfunction as an adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because metoprolol can cause depression, not anxiety. Choice B is incorrect as tachycardia is not an adverse effect of metoprolol; instead, it can lead to bradycardia. Choice D is incorrect because acute renal failure is not typically associated with the use of beta-blockers.

2. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Bruising
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works to prevent blood clots, but it can also increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from the gums. Prompt identification and management of bleeding are crucial to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while bruising and other symptoms can occur as a result of bleeding, they are not the primary side effect to monitor for with clopidogrel. Nausea and headache are less commonly associated with clopidogrel use compared to bleeding.

3. How should the healthcare provider schedule the administering of propylthiouracil (PTU)?

• A. Offer both drugs together with a meal
• B. Give parental dose once every 24 hours
• C. Schedule both medications at bedtime
• D. Administer iodine one hour before PTU

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering iodine one hour before PTU is crucial to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness of PTU. This timing helps optimize the therapeutic benefits of PTU by allowing it to be absorbed efficiently without interference from iodine, ultimately leading to better treatment outcomes for the patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because offering both drugs together with a meal, giving parental dose once every 24 hours, and scheduling both medications at bedtime do not address the specific timing requirement of administering iodine before PTU for optimal absorption.

4. A client with bipolar disorder is taking lithium. Which client assessment data would indicate a potential adverse effect of lithium therapy?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth and increased thirst
• C. Tremors and polyuria
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client taking lithium, dry mouth and increased thirst are indicators of potential adverse effects. Lithium can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, causing polyuria and subsequent increased thirst due to impaired water reabsorption in the kidneys. Tremors can also be a sign of lithium toxicity. Monitoring and recognizing these symptoms are crucial in managing lithium therapy and preventing further complications.

5. A postoperative client has a prescription for ketorolac 30mg IV q6h. Which response demonstrates that therapeutic levels of the medication have been achieved?

• A. Observe wound drainage for a change in appearance
• B. Assess the client's calves for inflammation
• C. Perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale
• D. Measure the client's intake and output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale. Ketorolac is an NSAID prescribed for pain relief. Monitoring pain levels is crucial to evaluate the therapeutic effectiveness of the medication. Pain assessment helps determine if the medication is providing adequate pain relief, indicating that therapeutic levels have been achieved.

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